Q.1
Zoospore of Albugo possesses flagella … [ RPMT 1996]
  • a) Two similar and apical
  • b) Four similar and median
  • c) Four apical
  • d) Two dissimilar and median
Q.2
Which is of the following statements is incorrect? [NEET 2019]
  • a) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.
  • b) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD.
  • c) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously.
  • d) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae.
Q.3
After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in ... .. [NEET 2018]
  • a) Agaricus
  • b) Alternaria
  • c) Neurospora
  • d) Saccharomyces
Q.4
Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans ? [NEET 2018]
  • a) Cyanobacteria
  • b) Diatoms
  • c) Dinoflagellates
  • d) Euglenoids
Q.5
Storage grains come to have aflatoxin due to growth of … [ AIIMS 1997]
  • a) Virus
  • b) Yeast
  • c) Bacterium
  • d) Aspergillus flavus
Q.6
Which is not true for fungi imperfecti? … [ Pb. PMT 2007]
  • a) They do not have sexual phase
  • b) They include toad stools, puff balls and stink horns
  • c) They do not include Aspergillus, the fungus used in making soya sauce
  • d) They include species that prey on nematodes
Q.7
Spore producing body of a cellular slime mould is … ..[ HAr PMT 1993] Explanation is provided click on
  • a) Pseudoplasmodium
  • b) Plasmodium
  • c) Sporangium
  • d) Sporophore
Q.8
A septum having pore complex in eumycota is … [ BHU 2002]
  • a) Septal pre
  • b) Dolipore septum
  • c) Lomasome
  • d) Coencocyte
Q.9
Paramecium is … [ Odisha 2008]
  • a) Virus
  • b) Bacterium
  • c) Annelid
  • d) Protozoan
Q.10
Malaria fever is controlled by the drug .. [ RPMT 2006]
  • a) Penicillin
  • b) DDT
  • c) Streptomycin
  • d) Quinine
Q.11
Highest incubation period occurs in Plasmodium … [ CPMT 2001]
  • a) P.malariae
  • b) P. vivax
  • c) P.ovale
  • d) P.falciparum
Q.12
Fungi Imperfecti is… [ AFMC 2012]
  • a) Phycomycetes
  • b) Ascomycetes
  • c) Basidiomycetes
  • d) Deuteromycetes
Q.13
Common enteritis infection in India occurs by …[ MPPMT 1994]
  • a) Mosquito bits
  • b) Viruses
  • c) Ingesting cysts with food and drinks
  • d) Eating spice rich food
Q.14
In Plasmodium, gametocytes are formed from … [ Bih PMT 1994]
  • a) Schizont
  • b) Trophozoite
  • c) Sporozoite
  • d) Merozoite
Q.15
In Amoeba and Paramecium osmoregulation occurs through …. [ BHU 1996]
  • a) Pseudopodia
  • b) Nucleus
  • c) Contractile vacuole
  • d) General surface
Q.16
Which one is a laboratory weed? [ Pb PMT 2001]
  • a) Penicillium
  • b) Aspergillus
  • c) Neuropora
  • d) Yeast
Q.17
In Mucor, conjugation results in … [ RPMT 2006]
  • a) Zoospore
  • b) Akinete
  • c) Arthrospore
  • d) Zygospore
Q.18
Post-erythrocytic part of life cycle of Plasmodium is called … [ har PMT 2003]
  • a) Golgi cycle
  • b) Krebs cycle
  • c) Short cycle
  • d) Ross cycle
Q.19
The major function of contractile vacuole is … [ BHU 1992]
  • a) Excretion
  • b) Circulation
  • c) Osmoregulation
  • d) All the above
Q.20
Chlorophyll containing euglenoid species are … [ Pb. PMT 2005]
  • a) Facultative autotrophs
  • b) Obligate autotrophs
  • c) Obligate heterotrophs
  • d) Facultative heterotrophs
Q.21
Yeast is employed for production of … [ MPPMT 1996]
  • a) Curd
  • b) Cheese
  • c) Acetic acid
  • d) Ethyl alcohol
Q.22
Which one is incorrect? …[ AMU 2009]
  • a) Plasmodium falciparum, malaria, relapse, mosquito
  • b) Trypanosoma gambiense, Glossina, Sleeping sickness, Winterbottom signs
  • c) Wuchereria bancrofti elephantiasis, microfilariae, mosquito
  • d) Entamoeba histolytica, dysentery quadrinucleate cyst, colon
Q.23
Amoeba is …. [ Odisha 1995]
  • a) Multicellular
  • b) unicellular
  • c) Acellular
  • d) Subcellular
Q.24
Euglena stores food as … [ AMU 2002]
  • a) Protein
  • b) Starch
  • c) Fat
  • d) Paramylum
Q.25
L.S.D. is derived from .. [ MPPMT 1991]
  • a) Papaver somniferum
  • b) Cannabis sativa
  • c) Sclerospora graminicola
  • d) Claviceps purpurea
Q.26
Which is not an example of eukaryotic cells .. [ CBSE 2011]
  • a) Euglena viridis
  • b) Paramecium caudatum
  • c) Amoeba proteus
  • d) Escherichia coli
Q.27
Malignant tertian malaria is due to … [ AIIMS 2000]
  • a) Plasmodium falciparum
  • b) P. vivax
  • c) P. ovale
  • d) P. malariae
Q.28
A widely but periodically occurring plant disease is … [ AMU 1999]
  • a) Endemic
  • b) Epidemic
  • c) Sporadic
  • d) Epiphytotic
Q.29
Study of fungi is ….[JIPMER 1990]
  • a) Palynology
  • b) Mycology
  • c) Phycology
  • d) Microbiology
Q.30
Food reserve in Plasmodium occurs in … [ RPMT 2002]
  • a) Merozoites
  • b) Megagametocytes
  • c) Microgametocytes
  • d) Meta crypto merozoites
Q.31
Maurer’s dots occur in human RBCs infected by … [ MPPMT 2002]
  • a) Plasmodium falciparum
  • b) Plasmodium ovale
  • c) Plasmodium vivax
  • d) Plasmodium malariae
Q.32
Erythrocytic cycle of Plasmodium occurs in … [ CPMT 1993]
  • a) Liver
  • b) Spleen
  • c) RBC
  • d) Gut
Q.33
Red oceanic tides can be due to …. [HPPMT 2005]
  • a) Diatoms
  • b) Dinoflagellates
  • c) Red Algae
  • d) Blue – green algae
Q.34
Chloroquine is given for treating … [ CPMT 1998]
  • a) AIDS
  • b) Cancer
  • c) Tetanus
  • d) Malaria
Q.35
Which one resides in the mouth of human beings? …. [ MPPMT 1995]
  • a) Entamoeba coli
  • b) Entamoeba histolytica
  • c) Entamoeba gingivalis
  • d) Amoeba proteus
Q.36
Common bread mould is …
  • a) Aspergillus
  • b) Penicillium
  • c) Erysiphe
  • d) Rhizopus
Q.37
Gametic meiosis occurs in protists which are
  • a) Diploid
  • b) Haploid
  • c) Tetraploid
  • d) Mesokaryotic
Q.38
Which one is filter feeder? [ MPPMT 1995]
  • a) Spider
  • b) Leech
  • c) Paramecium
  • d) Amoeba
Q.39
Mode of feeding in free living protozoans is …[ DPMT 2007] Expanation is provided click on
  • a) Holozoic
  • b) Saprozoic
  • c) Holophytic
  • d) All above
Q.40
Which one is not a protozoan protest? … [ Manipal 1995]
  • a) Plasmodium vivax
  • b) Paramecium caudatum
  • c) Enterobius vermiclaris
  • d) Trypanosoma gambiense
Q.41
Which is absent in Amoeba
  • a) Golgi apparatus
  • b) Lysosome
  • c) Centriole
  • d) Plasmalemma
Q.42
Passive food ingestion in Amoeba is called …[BHU 2008]
  • a) Import
  • b) Circumvallation
  • c) Circumfluence
  • d) Invagination
Q.43
Infection of Entamoeba histolytica is prevented by … ..[ CPMT1996]
  • a) Avoiding kissing
  • b) Avoiding clothes of patient
  • c) Uncontaminated food
  • d) None of the above
Q.44
Trichonympha is a symbiont in alimentary canal of …
  • a) Earthworm
  • b) Snails
  • c) Hermit Carb
  • d) Termite
Q.45
Penicillin was discovered by … [ AFMC 1991]
  • a) S. Waksman
  • b) Robert Koch
  • c) Louis Pasteur
  • d) Alexander Fleming
Q.46
Amoeba is immortal. It occurs all over the world due to …. [ CPMT 1996]
  • a) Binary fission
  • b) Conjugation
  • c) Spores
  • d) Regeneration
Q.47
Cyst is produced in Amoeba during ….. [ CPMT 1991]
  • a) Adverse conditions
  • b) Sexual reproduction
  • c) Prior to sexual reproduction
  • d) After sexual reproduction
Q.48
Multiple fission in Plasmodium is … [ DPMT 1996]
  • a) Gamogamy
  • b) Schizogony
  • c) Sporulation
  • d) None of the above
Q.49
Chief advantage of encystment to an Amoeba is … [ CBSE 2003]
  • a) Ability to survive during adverse physical conditions
  • b) Ability to live for some time without ingesting food
  • c) Protection from parasites and predators
  • d) d) Chance to get rid of accumulated products
Q.50
Seeding ponds with Gambusia fish is an example of … [ BHU 1998]
  • a) Parasitism
  • b) Hyperparasitism
  • c) Biocontrol
  • d) Both a and b
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