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NEET Biology MCQ
Evolution Mcq
Quiz 12
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Q.1
Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that:
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a) The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area.
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b) The lighter form of moth has no selective advantage either in polluted area or non – polluted area.
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c) Melanism is a pollution generated feature.
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d) The true black melanic forms arose by a recurring random mutation.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.2
The animals of cold countries have relatively shorter and poorly developed ears, eyes, hairs and other phenotypic characters. This is known by which law?
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a) Cope’s Law.
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b) Dollo’s Law.
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c) Allen’s Law.
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d) Bergmann’s Law.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.3
Fossilisedfaeces of extinct animals known as:
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a) Coprolites.
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b) Moulds.
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c) Petrification.
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d) Gastroliths.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.4
The book "Origin of Species" was written by Charles Darwin in:
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a) 1859.
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b) 1885.
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c) 1883.
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d) 1897.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.5
The animal group which does not exist in Galapagos island is:
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a) Insects.
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b) Protozoa
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c) Crustacean
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d) Amphibia.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.6
The embryological support for evolution was disproved by whose keen observations?
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a) Karl Ernst Von Baer
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b) Ernst Haeckel
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c) Charles Darwin.
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d) Alfred Wallace.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.7
Which of the following is from the same lineage as that of Tyrannosaurus?
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a) Triceratops
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b) Stegosaurus.
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c) Brachiosaurus
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d) Pteranodon.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.8
Evolution is not
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a) a stochastic process.
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b) Based on chance events in nature
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c) Based on chance mutation in the organisms
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d) Directed process in the sense of determinism
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.9
If in a given population number of individuals with dominant phenotype are 60% what will be the number of heterozygote in that population:
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a) Around 23%
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b) Around 46%
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c) 26%.
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d) 25%.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.10
Sauropsida gave rise to:
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a) Turtles.
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b) Mammals.
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c) Gnetales.
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d) Ginkgo's.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.11
The man like primates walked in eastern Africa around 3-4mya. This belief was supported by:
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a) Hominid features of bones discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania.
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b) Hominid features of bones discovered in Whole Africa.
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c) Hominid features of bones discovered in Peru
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d) Hominid features of bones discovered in Australia.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.12
Lederberg’s replica plating experiments in E coli bacteria using antibiotic penicillin proved that:
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a) Antibiotics can kill bacteria.
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b) Evolution is a slow process.
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c) Evolution takes place in microbes also.
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d) Mutations are pre adaptive.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.13
Pre historic cave arts, orthognathous face, 1.8m tall, well built body and domestication of animals are related to:
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a) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis.
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b) Homo habilis.
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c) Homo sapien sapiens.
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d) Homo sapienfossilis.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.14
Most recent man found as fossil was:
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a) Java man.
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b) Peking man.
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c) Cro – Magnon man.
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d) Heidelberg man.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.15
Assertion: Due to bottle neck effect, among the survivors certain alleles may be over – represented, some may be under – represented and some alleles may be totally eliminated. Reason: The path of extinction of a species cannot be reversed due to bottle neck effect.
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a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
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b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
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c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
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d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Explanation
Answer : (b)
Q.16
The earliest fossil form, in the phylogeny of horse is:
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a) Eqqus.
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b) Mesohippus.
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c) Eohippus.
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d) Merychippus.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.17
Which of the following statements is correct?
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a) There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals.
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b) Stem cells are specialised cells.
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c) Ontogeny repeats Phylogeny.
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d) All plant and animal cells are Totipotent.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.18
Closest primate to man is:
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a) Gorilla.
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b) Rhesus monkey.
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c) Rhesus monkey.
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d) Lemur.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.19
Which of the following structures is homologous to the wings of a bird?
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a) Flipper of a whale.
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b) Dorsal fin of a shark.
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c) Hind limbs of a rabbit.
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d) Wings of a moth.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.20
Mammals evolved from:
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a) Therapsids.
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b) Sauropsida.
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c) Thecodont
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d) Tuataras
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.21
Which of the following does not hold true for Australopithecus?
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a) Existed 2mya.
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b) Probably lived in East African grasslands.
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c) They hunted with stone weapons
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d) Ate meat.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.22
The first fossil man was:
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a) Australopithecus.
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b) Homo erectus.
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c) Sinanthropus.
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d) Ginganlopithecus.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.23
Homo sapiens arose in/Cradle of Modern man is:
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a) Europe.
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b) Middle east.
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c) Africa.
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d) Asia
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.24
Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by:
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a) Binocular vision.
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b) Chromosome number.
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c) Dental formula.
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d) Cranial capacity.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.25
Read the following statements and choose the correct option: (i) Increase in melanised moths after industrialisation in Great Britain is proof for natural selection. (ii) When more individuals in a population acquire mean character value it is called disruption. (iii) Changes in allelic frequency in a population will lead to Hardy Weinberg equilibrium. (iv) Genetic drift, changes the existing gene or allelic frequency in future generation.
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a) (ii) only is correct
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b) (iv) only is correct
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c) (i) and (iv) only are correct.
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d) (i) and (iii) only are correct.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.26
Coenozoic era is the golden age of:
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a) Fishes and Reptiles.
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b) Amphibians and reptiles.
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c) Birds and mammals.
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d) Amphibians and fishes.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.27
Which evolutionary force decreases the genetic diversity of a population by increasing the proportion of smaller individuals?
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a) Mutation.
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b) Gene flow
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c) Bottle neck effect.
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d) Random mating.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.28
The cranial capacity of which of the following pre – historic man was almost the same as that of modern man?
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a) Cro – Magnon man.
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b) Neanderthal man.
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c) Java man.
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d) Peking man.
Explanation
Answer : (b)
Q.29
The concept of sudden genetic change which breeds true in a species is represented as:
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a) Inheritance of acquired characters
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b) Natural selection.
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c) Laws of inheritance.
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d) Mutation.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.30
Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium cannot operate if:
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a) Selective mating occurs and only useful alleles get chance to appear in next generation.
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b) Mating is at random and all alleles get equal chance to appear in next generation.
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c) Mutations and gene flow are absent.
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d) Populations are largely sized.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.31
Assertion: Gene flow increases genetic variations. Reason: The random introduction of new alleles into recipient population and their removal from the donor population affects allele frequency.
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a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
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b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
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c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
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d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.32
Which of the following is correct about microspheres?
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a) Don’t have all properties of life.
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b) Composed of may protein molecules.
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c) Bud to form smaller microspheres.
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d) All of these are correct.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.33
Initiating force of evolution is:
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a) Variation.
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b) Adaptation.
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c) Natural selection.
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d) Competition.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.34
According to Darwin, diversity is found in Australian marsupials is due to:
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a) Convergent evolution.
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b) Divergent evolution.
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c) Adaptive radiation
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d) Co – evolution.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.35
In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two chambered fish like heart, three chambered frog like heart and finally four chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?
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a) Lamarck’s principle.
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b) Mendelian principles.
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c) Biogenetic law.
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d) Hardy Weinberg law.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.36
Assertion: Some organisms are better adapted to survive in hostile environment. Reason: Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
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a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
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b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
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c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
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d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.37
Stanley L Miller conducted experiments before 1953 on prebiotic earth environment using special apparatus. The first surprising products were:
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c) Nucleotides.
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a) Amino acids.
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b) Peptides
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d) Simple sugars.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.38
Darwin proposed ‘Natural selection’ theory to explain evolution of life forms. Which of the following is not an idea of Darwinism?
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a) Survival of fittest.
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b) Inheritance of acquired characters.
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c) Use and disuse of organs.
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d) Variations.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.39
Which of the following was the novel insight of Darwin in his theory?
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a) Variations are heritable and make resource utilisation better for few will enable only those to reproduce and leave more progeny.
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b) Population size will grow exponentially if everybody reproduced maximally.
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c) Natural resources are limited yet populations are stable in size except for seasonal fluctuations.
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d) Members of populations vary in characteristics.
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.40
Which of the following was not flourishing in Jurassic period?
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a) Herbaceous lycopods.
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b) Sphenopsida.
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c) Ferns.
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d) Conifers.
Explanation
Answer : (b)
Q.41
Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter?
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a) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter.
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b) Microbes did not appear in stored meat.
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c) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter.
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d) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.42
There is an optimum wing length for a hawk of a particular size with certain mode of life in a given environment. Differences in breeding potential will eliminate those hawks with wing spans larger or smaller than this optimum length. This will occur due to:
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a) Progressive natural selection.
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b) Disruptive natural selection.
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c) Stabilizing natural selection.
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d) Diversifying selection.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.43
Identify the correct statement about human evolution:
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a) Proconsuls gave rise to the ancestors of chimpanzee and gorilla in Oligocene epoch.
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b) Skill full man/Tool maker was the transition man with a cranial capacity of 650 – 800cc.
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c) Fossils of Java ape man discovered from Pleistocene rocks of Central Java in 1981.
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d) Homo sapiens fossilis or cave artists is the first direct ancestor towards modern man.
Explanation
Answer : (b)
Q.44
How was Mendel's work ultimately reconciled with Darwin's theory of natural selection during the evolutionary synthesis in the 1930s and 1940s?
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a) Scientists recognized that once one thinks about species as populations, rather than individuals, there is no incompatibility between them.
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b) Mendel's theory was replaced by the mutation theory.
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c) It was recognized much of the variation we observe in nature is due to recombination, rather than mutation.
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d) a and c.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.45
Why, according to our reading, did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of Species?
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a) Darwin wanted to share his theory as quickly as possible once he returned from his voyage on the Beagle
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b) It took twenty years for Darwin to develop a theory.
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c) Darwin suffered from a number of illnesses.
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d) Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.46
Which of the following examples of variation is not important from an evolutionary standpoint?
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a) Genetic differences between individual organisms comprising the population.
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b) Inherited differences between individual organisms comprising the population.
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c) Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that have no affect on an individual's ability to survive and reproduce.
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d) a and b.
Explanation
Answer : (c)
Q.47
The scientist who cut off the tails of mice of successive generations to prove Lamarck's theory was wrong was _____.
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a) Weismann
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b) Haeckel
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c) Darwin
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d) Wallace
Explanation
Answer : (a)
Q.48
Microevolution takes place due to
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a) somatogenic variation
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b) blastogenic variation
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c) continuous variation
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d) Successive variation
Explanation
Answer : (b)
Q.49
Which of the following is not an example of micro evolutionary change?
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a) The dark form of many moth species has increased in areas darkened by pollution.
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b) Penicillin resistant forms of bacteria have arisen since the introduction of antibiotics.
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c) The proportion of left and right bending moths in cichlid fish remains roughly 50:50.
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d) The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the species.
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.50
The surface temperature of the sun is ______.
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a) 6000o C
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b) 1000o C
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c) 10,000o C
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d) 9000o C
Explanation
Answer : (a)
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