Q.1
Sum total of genes in a population is ... ... [ CPMT 1993 ]
  • a) Genotype
  • b) Karyotype
  • c) Genetic constitution
  • d) Gene pool
Q.2
Continental drift explains ... ... [ AMU 2002 ]
  • a) Mass extinctions
  • b) Distribution of fossils on earth
  • c) Geographical upheavals
  • d) All the above
Q.3
Wings of Bat, Locust and Pigeon are ... ... [ EAMCET 1999 ]
  • a) Vestigial organs
  • b) Exoskeletal structures
  • c) Homologous organs
  • d) Analogous organs
Q.4
Struggle for existence and survival of the fittest theories were proposed by ... .. [ CPMT 2007]
  • a) Darwin
  • b) Lamarck
  • c) Wallace
  • d) None of the above
Q.5
Planet nearest to sun is ... ... [ Har PMT 1993 ]
  • a) Earth
  • b) Moon
  • c) Mercury
  • d) Mars
Q.6
The statement "nothing in biology makes sense except in the light of evolution" was given by ... .... [ kerala 2000 ]
  • a) Dobzhansk
  • b) Darwin
  • c) Oparin
  • d) Hooker
Q.7
Who was the first to the idea of fixity of species? ... .. [ kerala 2009]
  • a) Darwin
  • b) Lamarck
  • c) Robert Hooke
  • d) William Harvey
Q.8
Hugo de Vries' contribution is .. .. [ CBSE 1992 ]
  • a) Theory of Natural selection
  • b) Theory of Mutations
  • c) Law of Dominance
  • d) Law of segregation
Q.9
Genetic recombination occurs due to ... ... [ CPMT 2002]
  • a) Mitosis and meiosis
  • b) Fertilisation and mitosis
  • c) Fertilisation and meiosis
  • d) None of the above
Q.10
A common means of sympatric speciation is ... .. [ DPMT 2010]
  • a) Polyploidy
  • b) Imposition of geographic barrier
  • c) Spatial segregation of mating sites
  • d) Temporal segregation of breeding season
Q.11
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is influenced by gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination and .. ... [ kerala 2008]
  • a) Evolution
  • b) Limiting factor
  • c) Over-production
  • d) Natural selection
Q.12
Mesozoic era was dominated by ... ... [ CPMT 2003 ]
  • a) Birds
  • b) Fishes
  • c) Reptiles
  • d) Mammals
Q.13
Which is correct? ... .. [ Odisha 2005 ]
  • a) 99% of existed species are extinct
  • b) 65% of existed species are extinct
  • c) 40% of existed species are extinct
  • d) 30% of existed species are extinct
Q.14
Name the law that states 'Embryonic development of an animal repeats the embryonic stages of ancestors ... ... [ CPMT 1992 ]
  • a) Biogenetics Law
  • b) Anaximander's law
  • c) Florkin's Law
  • d) Law of Segregation
Q.15
The idea of natural selection as fundamental process of evolutionary changes was reached ... .. [ KCET 2007]
  • a) By Charles Darwin in 1866
  • b) Alfred Russel Wallace in 1901
  • c) Independently by Darwin and Russel in 1859
  • d) Independently by Darwin and Russel in 1900
Q.16
The term hot diluted soup was given by ... ...[ HPPMT 2007 ]
  • a) Haldane
  • b) Urey
  • c) Oparin
  • d) None of the above
Q.17
Which one is not vestigial in humans? ... ... [ AFMC 2007 ]
  • a) Third molar
  • b) Coccyx
  • c) Segmental abdominal muscles
  • d) Finger nails
Q.18
Hexaploid Wheat developed through ... .. [ AIIMS 1997 ]
  • a) Hybridomas
  • b) Chromosome doubling
  • c) Hybridization
  • d) Hybridization and chromosome doubling
Q.19
Darwinian fitness of an organism is a measure of ... .. [ JKCET 2012]
  • a) Its ability relative to others, to pass genes to the next generation
  • b) Number of offspring it produces
  • c) Its life span
  • d) Its physical vigor
Q.20
Principle of natural Selection was proposed by ... .. [ CPMT 2003]
  • a) lamarck
  • b) De Vries
  • c) Darwin
  • d) Mendel
Q.21
A living connecting link that provides evidence of organic evolution is ..... [ CPMT 2009]
  • a) Sphenodon between reptiles and birds
  • b) Archaeopteryx between reptiles and birds
  • c) Lung fishes between pisces and reptiles
  • d) Duck - billed Platypus between reptiles and mammals
Q.22
Evolutionary history of an organism is known as ... ... [ AFMC 2008]
  • a) Ontogeny
  • b) Phylogeny
  • c) Ancestry
  • d) Palaeontology
Q.23
Reptilian features of Archaeopteryx is ... ..
  • a) U -shaped furcula
  • b) Beak
  • c) Abdominal ribs
  • d) Feathers
Q.24
Which is a set of evidences of evolution ... ... [ CPMT 1991 ]
  • a) Homologous and analogous organs
  • b) Homologous and vestigial organs
  • c) Analogous and vestigial organs
  • d) All the above
Q.25
Mutations are considered raw materials of evolution because they ... ... [ Odisha 2008]
  • a) Cause death of organism
  • b) Contribute to new variations
  • c) Are stable
  • d) Random
Q.26
Which experiment suggest that simplest living organism could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter? ... .. [ CBSE 2005 ]
  • a) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
  • b) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter
  • c) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
  • d) Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in sealed vessel
Q.27
The sequence in evolution of horse was ... ... [ kerala 2000 ]
  • a) Equus, Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus
  • b) Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Equus
  • c) Mesohippus, Eohippus, Merychippus, Equus
  • d) MErychippus, Eohippus, Equus, Mesohippus
Q.28
Who wrote the book " Genetics and Origin of Species"? ... .. [ HAr PMT 2007]
  • a) Oparin
  • b) Hooker
  • c) Bobzhansky
  • d) Darwin
Q.29
Statement: Long neck of Giraffe is due to centripetal selection Reason: During directional selection when the mean value of phenotype coincides with new optimum environmental conditions, centripetal selection takes over ... ... [ EAMCET
  • a) Both statement and reason are true and reason is correct answer to statement
  • b) Only statement is true and reason is false
  • c) Both are false
  • d) Both are true but reason is not correct explanation of statement
Q.30
Tachyglossus is connecting link between .. ... [ DPMT 2009]
  • a) Reptiles and mammals
  • b) Reptiles and birds
  • c) Amphibians and reptiles
  • d) Birds and mammals
Q.31
Select the wrong pair
  • a) Haldane → Hot dilute soup
  • b) Oparin → Protobionts
  • c) Spallanzani → Abiogenesis
  • d) Sidney Walter Fox → Coacervates
Q.32
Improved races of Pigeon developed due to .. .. [ CPMT 1994 ]
  • a) Environmental selection
  • b) Natural selection
  • c) Artificial selection
  • d) Protective selection
Q.33
Which are not homologous? ... ... [ CPMT 2001 ]
  • a) Fore arm of humans and fins of fishes
  • b) Wings of bat and insects
  • c) Fins of fishes and flippers of Whales
  • d) Human fore arms, Bat's wings and flippers of Whale
Q.34
Origin of first mammals occurred ... ... [ AMU 1992 ]
  • a) 500 million yrs
  • b) 220 million yrs
  • c) 1600 million yrs
  • d) Over 1600 million yrs ago
Q.35
Species are differentiated on the basis of .. ... [ MPPMT 2007]
  • a) Interbreeding
  • b) Reproductive isolation
  • c) Species diversity
  • d) None of the above
Q.36
Possible early source of energy was ... ... [ AIIMS 2000 ]
  • a) Chlorophyll
  • b) CO2
  • c) UV radiations and lightning
  • d) Green plants
Q.37
Industrial melanism is an example of ... .. [ CBSE 2003 ]
  • a) Drug resistance
  • b) Darkening of skin due to smoke from industries
  • c) Protective resemblance with the surroundings
  • d) Defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations
Q.38
Stanley Miller's experiment supports ... ... [ Manipal 2005 ]
  • a) Abiogenesis
  • b) Biogenesis
  • c) Pangenesis
  • d) Chemical theory
Q.39
New species develop due to ... ... [ CBSE 2002 ]
  • a) Isolation and mutation
  • b) Competition and mutation
  • c) Isolation and variation
  • d) Isolation and competition
Q.40
Assertion: Natural selection is the outcome of diierece in survival and reproduction among individual that show variation in one or more traits. Reason: Adaptive forms of a given trait tend to become more common or disappear ... ... [ AIIMS 2004 ]
  • a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
  • b) The Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
  • c) Assertion is true but, Reason is false
  • d) Assertion is false but, Reason is true
Q.41
An example of reproductive isolation is .. .. [ JKCMEE 2007]
  • a) Mule
  • b) Bonellia
  • c) Dinosaurs
  • d) Archaeopteryx
Q.42
Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that .. ... [ CBSE 1993]
  • a) Darwin was correct
  • b) Tail is an essential organs
  • c) Mutation theory is wrong
  • d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters
Q.43
Ancestral amphibians were tetrapods that evolved during ... .. [ BHU 2002 ]
  • a) Carboniferous period
  • b) Cretaceous period
  • c) Jurassic period
  • d) Devonian period
Q.44
Analogous organs are ... ... [ PMT 2001 ]
  • a) Wings of Bird and Butterfly
  • b) Wings of Bird and Bat
  • c) Limbs of Horse and Human
  • d) Teeth of Human and Gorilla
Q.45
Darwin's theory states that ... ... [ Pb.PMT 2002 ]
  • a) Characters are acquired through inheritance
  • b) Species change morphologically with time
  • c) Nature selects organism which can adapt
  • d) Evolution is due to effect of environment
Q.46
Under certain conditions, scientists have got cell-like structure but without its true organization. They are called ... ... [ MPPMT 1994 ]
  • a) Eobionts
  • b) Protists
  • c) Coacervates
  • d) Microbes
Q.47
Which is relatively most accurate method of dating of fossils? .... .. [ CBSE 2005 ]
  • a) Radiocarbon method
  • b) Potassium - Argon method
  • c) Electron spin - resonance method
  • d) Uranium - lead method
Q.48
Which one is used for dating archaeological specimens like bones, shells and wood? .... .. [ JIPMER 2002 ]
  • a) 3H
  • b) 14C
  • c) 121I
  • d) 32P
Q.49
Importance of survival of athe fittest as basic principle of competition in organic evolution was explained by ... .. [ JKCMEE 2007]
  • a) Lamarck
  • b) Darwin
  • c) Mendel
  • d) De Vries
Q.50
Potential danger is population greatly reduced in number is ... .. [ JKCET 2012]
  • a) Hardy - Weinberg disequilibrium
  • b) Reduced gene flow
  • c) Tendency towards assorted mating
  • d) Loss of genetic variability
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