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Quiz 5
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Q.1
Active immunity means … [ CBSE 1999]
0%
a) Resistance developed before disease
0%
b) Resistance developed after disease
0%
c) Increased heart beat
0%
d) Increased flow of blood
Explanation
Active Immunity . Immunity that develops after exposure to a disease-causing infectious microorganism or other foreign substance, such as following infection or vaccination. Answer : (b)
Q.2
To which type of barrier under innate immunity do saliva in mouth and tears from eyes belong … [ CBSE 2008]
0%
a) Physiological barriers
0%
b) Physical barriers
0%
c) Cytokine barriers
0%
d) Cellular barriers
Explanation
Acid in stomach, saliva in mouth, tears from eyes all prevent microbial growth. They are part of innate immunity and grouped under physiological barriers. Answer : (a)
Q.3
A person suspected to suffer from AIDS is advised to undergo diagnostic test ..[ CBSE 2011]
0%
a) Ultrasound
0%
b) WIDAL
0%
c) MRI
0%
d) ELISA
Explanation
The primary tests for diagnosing HIV and AIDs is ELISA Test Answer : (d)
Q.4
Women who consumed thalidomide as antivomiting drug during early months of pregnancy gave birth to children with … [ AIIMS 2007]
0%
a) Harelip
0%
b) Extra fingers and toes
0%
c) Undeveloped limbs
0%
d) No spleen
Explanation
Thalidomide combat nausea and alleviate morning sickness in pregnant women. The side-effects were devastating, children were subsequently born with severe disabilities Answer : (c)
Q.5
Cytokine that provides nonspecific immunity against viruses is … [ Odisha 2005]
0%
a) Interleukin
0%
b) Interferon
0%
c) Tumour necrosis
0%
d) Colony stimulating
Explanation
Innate immunity refers to nonspecific defense mechanisms that come into play immediately or within hours of an antigen's appearance in the body. The innate immune response is activated by chemical properties of the antigen. Interferons (IFNs) are low molecular weight proteins that belong to the class of glycoproteins known as cytokines. IFNs are part of the non-specific immune system and are an important first line of defense against viral infections Answer : (b)
Q.6
Opiate narcotic drugs are … ..[ JKCMEE 2008]
0%
a) Analgesic
0%
b) Hypnotic
0%
c) Antihistamine
0%
d) Antianxiety
Explanation
Opioids are medications that mimic the activity of endorphins, substances produced by the body to control pain or analgesic . Answer : (a)
Q.7
LSD is derived from … ..[ MHTCET 2010]
0%
a) Morphine
0%
b) Codeine
0%
c) Heroine
0%
d) Ergot
Explanation
LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide) are hallucinogenic drugs obtained from the sclerotia of ergot fungus. Answer : (d)
Q.8
Dipsomania is … [JKCMEE 2011]
0%
a) A type of depression
0%
b) Insanity due to psychosis
0%
c) Severe addition to alcohol
0%
d) Tendency to take much water
Explanation
Dipsomania is alcoholism, specifically in a form characterized by intermittent bouts of craving for alcohol. Answer : (c)
Q.9
An example of liquid tumour is … [ EAMCET 2005]
0%
a) Glioblastoma
0%
b) Adenocarcinoma
0%
c) Chondrosarcoma
0%
d) Myelocystic leukemia
Explanation
myeloid leukemia (AML) continues to be referred to as a “liquid tumor,” implying dissemination of bone marrow (BM)-derived cells in the blood. Adenocarcinoma is cancer that forms in mucus-secreting glands throughout the body. The disease may develop in many different places, Glioblastoma is a type of brain cancer. It's the most common type of malignant brain tumor among adults| Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumor composed of cartilage-producing cells. Answer : (b)
Q.10
Ringworm in humans is caused by … ..[CBSE 2010]
0%
a) Fungi
0%
b) Nematodes
0%
c) Viruses
0%
d) Bacteria
Explanation
Ringworm, also known as dermatophytosis, dermatophyte infection, or tinea, is a fungal infection of the skin. “Ringworm” is a misnomer, since a fungus, not a worm, causes the infection. The lesion caused by this infection resembles a worm in the shape of a ring — hence the name. Answer : (a)
Q.11
AIDS virus enters the human body through … [ MPPMT 1995]
0%
a) Food
0%
b) Kissing
0%
c) Water
0%
d) Blood
Explanation
HIV is spread when blood, semen, or vaginal fluids from an infected person enter another person's body, usually through sexual contact, from sharing needles when injecting drugs, or from mother to baby during birth. Answer : (d)
Q.12
Which of the following statements is false … [ Kerala 2006]
0%
a) Psychoactive drugs alter activity of nervous system
0%
b) Adolescence is marked by accelerated physical growth, development of reproductive organs and changes in functioning of neuroendocrine system
0%
c) Hallucinogen can alter one’s thoughts, feelings and perceptions
0%
d) Mescaline is stimulant
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.13
Drugs which induce dreamy state of unconsciousness are …[ kerala 2002]
0%
a) Sedatives
0%
b) Stimulants
0%
c) Hallucinogens
0%
d) Depressants
Explanation
Hallucinations are sensory experiences that appear real but are created by your mind. They can affect all five of your senses. Hallucinogens produce a dream like state and cause loss of contact with external reality without any true sensory stimulus. They cause hallucinations and produce false imaginations. They effect cerebrum and sense organs which can lead to extreme feeling of euphoria (excitement) or despair Answer : (c)
Q.14
Marijuana, Ganja and LSD are … [ AFMC 1997]
0%
a) Narcotics
0%
b) Hallucinogens
0%
c) Stimulants
0%
d) All the above
Explanation
Marijuana, Ganja, and LSD are drugs which alter our perception of reality by changing the way of communication in the nerve cells in our brain and these drugs are called as Hallucinogens. Narcotics are opiates such as morphine and codeine, but are not made from opium Stimulants are a class of drugs that speed up the messages between the brain and the body.examples of stimulants are dextroamphetamine (dexedrine, dextrostat, procentra), lisdexamfetamine (vyvanse), methylphenidate Answer : (b)
Q.15
Active immunity is due to …[ WEB 2008]
0%
a) Memory cells
0%
b) Killer T-cells
0%
c) Helper T-cells
0%
d) Suppressor T- cells
Explanation
Active immunity is long-lasting immunity produced by the body's own immune system and involves the production of long-lasting memory cells. Active immunity can either be natural, such as from an infection, or artificial, such as from vaccination Answer:(a)
Q.16
T-cells responds to pathogens by producing … [ Manipur 2006]
0%
a) Killer T-cells
0%
b) Helper T-cells
0%
c) Suppressor T-cells and memory cells
0%
d) Killer T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
Explanation
killer T cell recognizes and kills a virus-infected cell because of the viral antigen on its surface, thus aborting the infection because a virus will not grow within a dead cell. Helper T cells are the most important cells in adaptive immunity, as they are required for almost all adaptive immune responses. They not only help activate B cells to secrete antibodies and macrophages to destroy ingested microbes, but they also help activate cytotoxic T cells to kill infected target cells. Suppressor T cells, are a subpopulation of T cells that modulate the immune system, maintain tolerance to self-antigens, and prevent autoimmune disease. Answer : (d)
Q.17
Drugs vincristine and vinblastine used in cancer therapy are obtained from ..
0%
a) Rauwolfia serpentina
0%
b) Atropa belladonna
0%
c) Catharanthus roseus
0%
d) Withania somnifera
Explanation
The Madagascar periwinkle is the primary source of anticancer agents vinblastine and vincristine. Madagascar periwinkle (Catharanthus roseus) produces two potent alkaloids, vinblastine and vincristine, which are used to treat various cancers. Answer : (c)
Q.18
Drugs causing embryo malformation during pregnancy are called … ..[ kerala 2003]
0%
a) Sedatives
0%
b) Tranquillizers
0%
c) Teratogens
0%
d) Stimulants
Explanation
Teratogen: Any agent that can disturb the development of an embryo or fetus. Teratogens may cause a birth defect in the child. Or a teratogen may halt the pregnancy outright. The classes of teratogens include radiation, maternal infections, chemicals, and drugs. Answer : (c)
Q.19
Antiserum has … [ AIIMS 1998]
0%
a) Antigen
0%
b) Antibody
0%
c) White blood corpuscles
0%
d) Red blood corpuscles
Explanation
Antiserum is human or nonhuman blood serum containing monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies Answer : (b)
Q.20
higher vertebrates the immune system can distinguish self and non self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self cells then it leads to:
0%
a) Auto immune disorders
0%
b) Immuno deficiency diseases
0%
c) Allergic responses
0%
d) Congenital diseases
Explanation
Answer:(a)
Q.21
Match the following … [ kerala 2009]
a) Neoplasm
Hematopoietic cell tumour
b) Benign tumour
Bone cartilage tissue cancers
c) Carcinomas
Malignant tumour
d) Sarcomas
Cancer of epithelial tissue
e) Lymphomas
Noncancerous tumour
Initiation of new tumour
- - - -
0%
a) a – 3, b – 5, c – 4, d – 2, e -1
0%
b) a – 6, b – 4, c – 3, d – 2, e – 1
0%
c) a – 3, b – 5, c – 4, d – 1, e -2
0%
d) a -2, b – 5, c – 4, d – 3, e – 6
Explanation
Neoplasm a new and abnormal growth of tissue in a part of the body, especially as a characteristic of cancer. Malignant tumours are made up of cancer cells a – 3, Benign tumors are noncancerous growths in the body. Unlike cancerous tumors, they don't spread (metastasize) to other parts of the body.b – 5, Carcinoma is a malignancy that develops from epithelial cells. c – 4, A sarcoma is a rare kind of cancer that grows in connective tissue, such as bone, cartilage or muscle. d – 2, Lymphoma is cancer that begins in infection-fighting cells of the immune system, called lymphocytes. These cells are in the lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, bone marrow, and other parts of the body. Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are the stem cells that give rise to other blood cells. e -1 Answer : (a)
Q.22
Salmonella causes .. [ CBSE 2001]
0%
a) Polio
0%
b) T.B,
0%
c) Tetanus
0%
d) Typhoid
Explanation
Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi bacteria. Typhoid fever is contracted by the ingestion of contaminated food or water. Answer : (d)
Q.23
A disease transferred from mother to child through placenta is …[ MPPMT 2000]
0%
a) German measles
0%
b) Syphilis
0%
c) AIDS
0%
d) All the above
Explanation
Maternal infections caused by most organisms which can cross the placenta German measles (rubella), mumps, poliomyelitis, smallpox, rubeola, syphilis, malaria, toxoplasmosis, HIV, CMV infections caused by S typhosa, V fetus, L monocytogenes, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex virus) may result in abortion or stillbirth Answer : (d)
Q.24
Which pair of disease is viral? … [ CBSE 1996]
0%
a) AIDS, syphilis
0%
b) Typhoid, Tetanus
0%
c) Rabies, Mumps
0%
d) Cholera, T.B.
Explanation
virus : AIDS, Rabies, Mumps Bacteria: syphilis, Typhoid,Tetanus, Cholera, T.B. Answer : (c)
Q.25
Which is correctly named, printed and described …. [ CBSE 2012]
0%
a) Musca domestica - Common House Lizard, a reptile
0%
b) Plasmodium falciparum - Protozoan parasite, causes serious type of malaria
0%
c) Felis tigris - Indian Tiger, well protected in Gir forests
0%
d) E.Coli - Entamoeba coli, common bacterium of human intestine.
Explanation
Musca domestica is housefly (Musca domestica) Option 'a' is not correct pair Plasmodium falciparum is a unicellular protozoan parasite of humans, and the deadliest species of Plasmodium that causes malaria in humans. Option 'b'is correct pair Felis tigris is a large carnivorous feline mammal (Panthera tigris) of Asia, Option 'c' is not correct pair Escherichia coli (E.Coli) bacteria normally live in the intestines of healthy people and animals. Option 'd' is not correct pair Answer : (b)
Q.26
Events in body defense against infection is … [ AIIMS 1999]
0%
a) Inflammation, chemotaxis, diapedesis, phagocytosis and digestion
0%
b) Inflammation, diapedesis, chemotaxis, phagocytosis and digestion
0%
c) Digestion, diapedesis, phagocytosis, chemotaxis and inflammation
0%
d) Diapedesis, chemotaxis, digestion, phagocytosis and inflammation
Explanation
During inflammation, the blood supply increases, helping carry immune cells to the affected area. Because of the increased blood flow, an infected area near the surface of the body becomes red and warm. The walls of blood vessels become more porous, allowing fluid and white blood cells to pass into the affected tissue. Diapedesis the movement or passage of blood cells, especially white blood cells, through intact capillary walls into surrounding body tissue. Chemotaxis is the attraction and movement of macrophages to a chemical signal. Chemotaxis uses cytokines and chemokines to attract macrophages and neutrophils to the site of infection, ensuring that pathogens in the area will be destroyed. Phagocytic immune cells, the resulting phagosome may be merged with lysosomes containing digestive enzymes, forming a phagolysosome. Answer : (b)
Q.27
Fever in malaria is due to … [ CPMT 2004]
0%
a) Entry of cryptomerozoites into red blood corpuscles
0%
b) Entry of sporozoite into blood capillaries
0%
c) Release of hemozoin from red blood corpuscles
0%
d) Release of merozoite from red corpuscles
Explanation
When the parasite develops in the erythrocyte, numerous known and unknown waste substances such as hemozoin pigment and other toxic factors accumulate in the infected red blood cell. These are dumped into the bloodstream when the infected cells lyse and release invasive merozoites hemozoin and also glucose phosphate isomerase which stimulate macrophages to secrete cytokines and other factors which then cause the fever and the shivering observed in malaria Answer : (c)
Q.28
Cerebral malaria is caused by … [ MPPMT 2004]
0%
a) Plasmodium ovale
0%
b) Plasmodium vivax
0%
c) Plasmodium falciparum
0%
d) All the above
Explanation
Particularly Cerebral malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum. Answer : (c)
Q.29
Diphtheria is caused by … [ AIIMS 2007]
0%
a) Poisons released by living bacterial cells
0%
b) Poisons related by virus
0%
c) Poisons released by dead bacterial cells
0%
d) Excessive immune response by host’s body
Explanation
Diphtheria toxin is an exotoxin secreted by Corynebacterium, the pathogenic bacterium that causes diphtheria. Diphtheria toxin kills cells by inhibiting eukaryotic protein synthesis, and its mechanism of action has been extensively characterized. Answer : (a)
Q.30
Assertion: Escherichia coil, Shigella species and Salmonella species are all responsible for diarrhoeal diseases Reason: Dehydration is common to all types of diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of fluids and electrolytes should be ensured. … [ AIIMS 2008]
0%
a) If both the assertion and reason are true and reason explains the assertion.
0%
b) If both the assertion and reason are true but reason does not explain the assertion
0%
c) If assertion is true but reason is false
0%
d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Explanation
Escherichia coli (E. coli), Salmonella , and Shigella link. responsible for diarrhoeal diseases. Assertion is true Initial management of Dehydration includes placement of an intravenous or intraosseous line and rapid administration of 20 mL/kg of an isotonic crystalloid (eg, lactated Ringer solution, 0.9% sodium chloride). Additional fluid boluses may be required depending on the severity of the dehydration. reason is true Answer : (b)
Q.31
Antibodies are formed by … [ Odisha 2007]
0%
a) T-cells
0%
b) Monocytes
0%
c) Phagocytes
0%
d) B-cells
Explanation
Antibodies are produced by specialized white blood cells called B lymphocytes Answer : (d)
Q.32
Man in the life cycle of Plasmodium is … [ RPMT 2005]
0%
a) Primary host
0%
b) Secondary host
0%
c) Intermediate host
0%
d) None of these
Explanation
The malaria parasite life cycle involves two hosts. Plasmodium parasites' primary hosts and transmission vectors are female Anopheles mosquitoes. Humans and other vertebrates are secondary hosts. Answer : (b)
Q.33
What is correct? [ CBSE 2009]
0%
a) Malignant tumour may exhibit metastasis
0%
b) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain
0%
c) Benign tumour show metastasis
0%
d) Heroin accelerates body functions
Explanation
metastasis is the development of secondary malignant tumor growths at a distance from a primary site of cancer. option 'a' is correct statement Morphine is the standard choice for opiates and is widely used to relieve pain. Option 'b' is false statement A benign tumor is not a malignant tumor. It does not invade nearby tissue or spread to other parts of the body. So dont show metastasis. Option 'c' is false statement With heroin, the surge of pleasurable sensation is usually accompanied by a warm flushing of the skin, dry mouth, and a heavy feeling in the extremities. Nausea, vomiting, and severe itching may also occur. Option 'd' is false statement Answer : (a)
Q.34
Stimulant present in Cola, Tea and Cocoa is … [BHU 2002]
0%
a) Cocaine
0%
b) Caffeine
0%
c) Amphetamine
0%
d) Tannin
Explanation
Caffeine is a substance you find in many foods and beverages, from tea, coffee, chocolate or cocoa. Answer : (b)
Q.35
The predominant antibody in saliva is …[ DPMT 2010]
0%
a) IgA
0%
b) IgD
0%
c) IgC
0%
d) IgM
Explanation
IgA is the predominant antibody in mucous secretions such as saliva, tears, milk and intestinal juice. Answer : (a)
Q.36
T-lymphocytes recognize .. [ Odisha 2003]
0%
a) Polysaccharides
0%
b) Nucleic acid
0%
c) Peptides
0%
d) Recurring molecular groups
Explanation
T cells can detect the presence of an intracellular pathogen because infected cells display on their surface peptide fragments derived from the pathogen's proteins. Answer : (c)
Q.37
Which one is obtained by acetylation of morphine … [ AMU 2011]
0%
a) Smack/heroin
0%
b) Charas
0%
c) Cocaine
0%
d) Benzodiazepine
Explanation
Heroin is synthesised by acetylation of the two hydroxyl groups of morphine with acetyl chloride, Answer : (a)
Q.38
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS? … [ CBSE 2010]
0%
a) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection
0%
b) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent percent with proper care and nutrition
0%
c) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their number
0%
d) HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person
Explanation
HIV infects a type of white blood cell in the body's immune system called a T-helper cell (also called a CD4 cell). These vital cells keep us healthy by fighting off infections and diseases. HIV cannot reproduce on its own. Instead, the virus attaches itself to a T-helper cell and fuses with it (joins together) Answer : (c)
Q.39
Inflammatory response in allergy is due to release by mast cells of … [ AFMC 2009]
0%
a) Antibodies
0%
b) Antigens
0%
c) Histamine
0%
d) All the above
Explanation
Histamine is a chemical neurotransmitter produced by the body during an allergic reaction, most noticeably causing skin, nose, and throat and lung irritation. These reactions are part of the inflammatory response, which is an important part of the overall immune response Answer : (c)
Q.40
Jaundice is disease of … [ MPPMT 1994]
0%
a) Kidney
0%
b) Liver
0%
c) Pancreas
0%
d) Duodenum
Explanation
Jaundice is disease of Liver Jaundice is a condition in which the skin, sclera (whites of the eyes) and mucous membranes turn yellow. This yellow color is caused by a high level of bilirubin, a yellow-orange bile pigment. Bile is fluid secreted by the liver. Bilirubin is formed from the breakdown of red blood cells. Answer : (b)
Q.41
In drunk person, the part of brain to be affected first in loss of control is … [ BHU 1998]
0%
a) Cerebellum
0%
b) Pons varolii
0%
c) Medulla oblongata
0%
d) Cerebrum
Explanation
The first area compromised by alcohol is the cortex, which causes confusion and lowers inhibitions. Terrible jokes start to seem funny, and you are less afraid to talk to new people or sing bad karaoke. Next, it hits the cerebellum, altering movement and balance. Answer : (a)
Q.42
Jenner prepared vaccine for small pox virus by employing … [ MPPMT 2000]
0%
a) Attenuated small pox virus
0%
b) Small doses of small pox virus
0%
c) Attenuated cow’s pox virus
0%
d) Large doses of small pox virus
Explanation
Edward Jenner observed that milkmaids who previously had caught cowpox did not catch smallpox and showed that inoculated vaccinia protected against inoculated variola virus. Answer : (c)
Q.43
Innate immunity is provided by … [ Bih PMT 2006]
0%
a) Antibody
0%
b) Neutrophils
0%
c) B-cells
0%
d) T-cells
Explanation
The innate immune system is one of the two main immunity strategies found in vertebrates. The innate immune system is an older evolutionary defense strategy The innate leukocytes include: Natural killer cells, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils; and the phagocytic cells include macrophages, neutrophils, and dendritic cells, and function within the immune system by identifying and eliminating pathogens that might cause infection Answer : (b)
Q.44
Anaplasia is … [ MHTCET 2008]
0%
a) Transfer of cancer cells
0%
b) Formation of tumour
0%
c) Loss of cell adherence and cell differentiation
0%
d) Action of lysosomes over cells
Explanation
Anaplasia is a condition of cells with poor cellular differentiation, losing the morphological characteristics of mature cells and their orientation with respect to each other and to endothelial cells. Answer : (c)
Q.45
Immunoglobulin that increases in number during allergy is …[ BHU 2008]
0%
a) IgA
0%
b) IgE
0%
c) IgG
0%
d) IgM
Explanation
During an allergy, immune system overreacts to an allergen by producing antibodies called Immunoglobulin E (IgE). These antibodies travel to cells that release chemicals, causing an allergic reaction. Answer : (b)
Q.46
Damage to thymus in a child would lead to … [ AIIMS 2007]
0%
a) Loss of cell mediated immunity
0%
b) Loss of antibody mediated immunity
0%
c) A reduction in stem cell production
0%
d) Reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
Explanation
The thymus is a specialized primary lymphoid organ of the immune system. Within the thymus, Thymus cell lymphocytes or T cells mature. Damage to thymus in a child would lead to loss of antibody mediated immunity Answer : (a)
Q.47
Confirmatory test for AIDS is … [ MHTCET 2010]
0%
a) ELISA
0%
b) PCR
0%
c) Western bolt
0%
d) ESR
Explanation
The primary tests for diagnosing HIV and AIDs is ELISA. If an ELISA test is positive, the Western blot test is usually administered to confirm the diagnosis. Answer : (c)
Q.48
A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal congestion reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are symptoms of … [ KCET 2009]
0%
a) Bronchial carcinoma
0%
b) Rhinitis
0%
c) Bronchitis
0%
d) Cyanosis
Explanation
Rhinitis is inflammation and swelling of the mucous membrane of the nose, characterized by a runny nose and stuffiness and usually caused by the common cold or a seasonal allergy. Colds and allergies are the most common causes of rhinitis. Symptoms of rhinitis include a runny nose, sneezing, and stuffiness. Bronchial carcinoma symptoms are persistent or worsening cough. wheezing. coughing up blood and mucus. chest pain that gets worse when you take a deep breath, laugh, or cough. shortness of breath. hoarseness. weakness, fatigue. frequent or persistent attacks of bronchitis or pneumonia. Bronchitis symptoms are Cough. Production of mucus (sputum), which can be clear, white, yellowish-gray or green in color — rarely, it may be streaked with blood. Fatigue. Shortness of breath. Slight fever and chills. Chest discomfort. Cyanosis most common symptoms of the condition are bluish discoloration of the lips, fingers, and toes Answer : (b)
Q.49
Match the columns …[ KCET 2006]
a)Active natural
p)Injection of gamma globulins
b) First line of defense
q)Complement proteins and interferon
c) Passive natural immunity
r) Direct contact with pathogens that have entered inside
d) Second line of defense
s) Surface barriers
- -
t) Antibodies transferred through placenta
0%
a) a – r, b – s, c- t, d- q
0%
b) a-t, b – r, c – q, d- p
0%
c) a –s, b – r, c-t, d- q
0%
d) a – r, b- s, c – q, d- t
Explanation
Naturally acquired active immunity occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and becomes immune as a result of the primary immune response. a – r First line of defense include your skin, tears, mucus, cilia, stomach acid, urine flow, 'friendly' bacteria and white blood cells called neutrophils. b – s, Naturally acquired passive immunity occurs during pregnancy, in which certain antibodies are passed from the maternal blood into the fetal bloodstream in the form of IgG. c- t, second line of defense is non-specific immune responses - macrophages, neutrophils, interferons, and complement proteins. d- q Answer : (a)
Q.50
A viral disease is … [ CPMT 1992]
0%
a) Cancer
0%
b) Leukemia
0%
c) Typhoid
0%
d) Yellow fever
Explanation
Yellow fever is an acute viral haemorrhagic disease transmitted by infected mosquitoes. The "yellow" in the name refers to the jaundice that affects some patients. Symptoms of yellow fever include fever, headache, jaundice, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting and fatigue. Typhoid fever is an acute illness associated with fever caused by the Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi bacteria. Answer : (d)
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