Q.1
For transformation with recombinant DNA, the bacterial cells must first be made ‘competent’ which means: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Should increase their metabolic reactions.
  • b) Should decrease their metabolic reactions.
  • c) Increase efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium.
  • d) Ability to divide fast.
Q.2
Two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in Escherichia coli were isolated inOne was methylase and the other was restriction endonuclease. What was the significance of methylase? {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Able to cut the DNA of bacteriophage at specific sites.
  • b) Able to remove the methyl group and hence prevent the action of restriction endonuclease on host DNA.
  • c) Protection of host DNA from the action of restriction endonuclease by adding methyl group to one or two bases usually within the sequence recognized by restriction enzyme.
  • d) Able to ligate the two cohesive ends of DNA molecule.
Q.3
Select the correct option which shows the most appropriate temperature of three different steps of PCR mechanism:{submitted by Adhithyan js}
Sr Denaturation primer annealing primer extension
A 40 - 60°C 72°C 90°C
B 60 – 80°C 96 ºC 40 – 60°C
C 94 – 96°C 40 – 60°C 72ºC
D 72°C 60 – 80°C 40 – 60°C
  • a) A
  • b) B
  • c) C
  • d) D
Q.4
5’-GAATTC-3’. Arrange the correct 3’-5’ strand. {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) CTTAAC
  • b) CTAAT
  • c) GCTTAA
  • d) CTTAAG
Q.5
Which of the following is not true about pBR322 vector? {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) It was constructed by using DNA derived from naturally occurring plasmids of E. coli
  • b) It has two drug resistance gene tetR and ampR.
  • c) It was developed by Bolivar and Rodriquez.
  • d) Selectable markers present in it can differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis of their inability to produce colour in the presence of chromogenic substrate.
Q.6
Which of the following is used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment into human lymphocytes? {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) λ phage.
  • b) Ti plasmid.
  • c) Retroviruses.
  • d) pBR322
Q.7
Identify the wrong statement: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer created the first recombinant DNA in 1972.
  • b) In 1963, W Arber, H Smith and Alec Jeffreys discovered the restriction enzyme.
  • c) Cohen and Boyer combined their observations with DNA splicing which enabled them to create recombinant DNA.
  • d) In 1985 Kary Mullis discovered PCR.
Q.8
Identify the parts labelled 1-5 in the given diagram of simple stirred tank bioreactor: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
unit-9_ch-1_que_no-256_img_no1.png
  • a) 1-motor, 2-foam breaker, 3-flat bladed impeller, 4-culture broth, 5-sterile air
  • b) 1-foam breaker, 2-motor, 3- flat bladed impeller, 4-culture broth, 5-sterile air.
  • c) 1-foam breaker, 2-flat bladed impeller, 3-culture broth, 4-motor, 5-sterile air.
  • d) 1-motor, 2-flat bladed impeller, 3-foam breaker, 4-culture broth, 5-sterile air.
Q.9
What type of bond is formed by the sticky ends with their complementary counterparts: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Glycosidic bond.
  • b) Hydrogen bonds.
  • c) Phospho-diester bonds.
  • d) Disulphide bonds.
Q.10
Which is incorrect? {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) E.coRI cuts the DNA between the bases G and A.
  • b) Each restriction endonuclease recognizesa specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in DNA.
  • c) When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments do not have the same kind of sticky ends.
  • d) Making multiple copies of any template DNA is called cloning
Q.11
Match the following: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
Column I Column II
Hae III a. Arthrobacter luteus
2.Pst I b. Proteus vulgaris
3.Alu I c. Haemophilus aegyptius
4.Pvu I d. Providencin staurtii
  • a) 1-c,2-b,3-a,4-d
  • b) 1-c,2-b,3-d,4-a
  • c) 1-a,2-b,3-c,4-d
  • d) 1-c,2-d,3-a,4-b
Q.12
If a eukaryotic gene is incorrectly inserted into a plasmid vector the recipient bacterium may fail to express the gene because it cannot recognise the eukaryotic: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
  • b) introns
  • c) mRNA codons
  • d) Ligase
Q.13
In PUC 8 foreign gene is inserted into: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Ampicillin resistant gene
  • b) tetracycline resistant gene
  • c) Kanamycin resistant gene
  • d) Lac Z gene
Q.14
The polymerase chain reaction generates fragments of distinct size even when an intact chromosome is used as template. What determines the boundaries of the amplified fragment? {submitted by Adhithyan js} (
  • a) The sites to which the primers anneal.
  • b) The duration of elongation step in each cycle.
  • c) The temperature of elongation in each cycle.
  • d) The concentration of one particular deoxyribonucleotide in the reaction
Q.15
First instance of artificial recombinant DNA molecule was constructed by: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Stanley Cohen in 1971.
  • b) Herbert Boyer in 1973.
  • c) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1971.
  • d) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1972.
Q.16
Select the correctly matched pair: (i) Coenorhabditis elegans – A free living pathogenic nematode (ii) Expressed sequence tags – Identifying all the genes that are expressed in DNA. (iii) Molecular scissors- Restriction enzyme. (iv) Microinjection – Separation of DNA fragments. (v) Kanamycin resistant gene – Selectable marker for Ecoli.{submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  • b) (iii) and (v)
  • c) (ii) and (iii)
  • d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Q.17
Which of the following is true about exonucleases? {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) It removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA
  • b) It cuts at specific positions within the DNA
  • c) It adds methyl group to DNA
  • d) It remove specific nucleotides within the DNA
Q.18
Match the following columns I and II.{submitted by Adhithyan js}
Column I Column II
DNA ligase a. Cuts DNA approximately 25 nitrogen bases away from the recognition sequence
Type II restriction enzyme b. Cuts DNA 1000 nitrogen bases away from the recognition sequence
Type I restriction enzyme c. Joins the ends of DNA
Type III restriction enzyme d. Cuts DNA at the recognition sites
  • a) 1 →a ; 1 →b ; 1 →c ; 1 →d
  • b) 1 →b ; 1 →b ; 1 →d ; 1 →a
  • c) 1 →c ; 1 →d ; 1 →b ; 1 →a
  • d) 1 →c ; 1 →b ; 1 →a ; 1 →d
Q.19
An ideal vector should have selectable markers for transformation. Usually these are antibiotic resistant genes. The other genes which can be used are: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) GFP gene
  • b) Lac z gene
  • c) Luciferase gene
  • d) All of the above
Q.20
Telomerase enzymes were discovered by: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Elizabeth Blackburn
  • b) Arthur Kornberg
  • c) Richardson
  • d) Kary Milus
Q.21
Replica plating is used to identify recombinant Ecoli when which vector is used: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) pBR 322
  • b) BAC
  • c) PUC 8
  • d) Ti plasmid
Q.22
Which of the following statement is wrong: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a gram negative bacterium.
  • b) It produces crown gall tumour in dicot plants.
  • c) Acetosyringone is produced by the wound tissue of monocots
  • d) Opines are amino acid analogues.
Q.23
Variability seen in the human genome at 1.4 million locations is called: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Microsatellites
  • b) VNTRs
  • c) SNPs
  • d) RFLP
Q.24
Which of the following contains the key tools for recombinant DNA technology? (i) Restriction endonuclease, Ligase, Vectors. (ii) Ligase, Host organisms, polymerase enzymes. (iii) Vectors, Taq polymerase, primers. (iv) Restriction exonucleases, Ligase, primers, bioreactors.{submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
  • b) (i) and (ii)
  • c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
  • d) (iii) and (iv)
Q.25
Which of the following is required to perform Polymerase chain reaction: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) primers, dNTPs, and DNA polymerase
  • b) DNA, CaCl2, and nuclease.
  • c) Mg2+, DNA.
  • d) Both A and C
Q.26
The number of cloning sites(restriction sites) in pBR322: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) 7
  • b) around 40
  • c) 9
  • d) 6
Q.27
If any protein encoding gene is expressed in an heterologous host called: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Recombinant gene
  • b) Recombinant protein
  • c) Clone
  • d) Selectable marker.
Q.28
Match column I with column II with respect to the nomenclature of restriction enzyme EcoRI and select the correct answer from the codes given below:{submitted by Adhithyan js}
Column I Column II
a. E i. Ist in order of identification
b.co (ii) name of genus
c. R (iii) name of species
d. I (iv) name of strain.
  • a) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
  • b) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
  • c) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
  • d) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
Q.29
Which one is correct in gene isolation: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) DNA isolation → Cut with restriction enzyme → Gel electrophoresis → use of probe → Autoradiography.
  • b) DNA isolation → Cut with restriction enzyme → use of probe → Autoradiography → Gel electrophoresis.
  • c) Cut with restriction enzyme → Gel electrophoresis → Autoradiography → use of probe → DNA isolation.
  • d) Autoradiography → Gel electrophoresis → use of probe → DNA isolation → Cut with restriction enzyme.
Q.30
A piece of DNA introduces into an alien organism’s cytoplasm cannot multiply. But it can multiply when incorporated into DNA or chromosome of the alien cell. This is due to: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Lack of DNA ligase.
  • b)Lack of selectable markers.
  • c) Lack of restriction enzymes.
  • d) Lack of origin of replication
Q.31
Consider the following statements and select the correct option: (a) The first restriction endonuclease isolated was Hind III. (b) The most commonly recognised sequences of DNA are 4,5 or 6 base pairs long. (c) Restriction endonuclease is called molecular scissors. (d) Restriction enzymes remove the phosphate group from the 5’ end of DNA. (e) The action of restriction enzymes generates both staggered and blunt ends.{submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) only c and e are correct.
  • b) a,b,c and d are correct
  • c) only b,c and e are correct.
  • d) a and d are correct.
Q.32
Number of strains from which restriction enzymes have been isolated; {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) 230
  • b)250
  • c) 100
  • d) 220
Q.33
Match the following: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
E.coRI (a) Bacillus amyloliquefaciens.
Bam HI (b) Haemophilus influenzae.
Hind III (c) Eschericha coli.
pBR322 (d) Artificial plasmid.
  • a) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d.
  • b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c.
  • c) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.
  • d) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c.
Q.34
Carefully check the following steps. Identify the process and label the steps: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
unit-9_ch-1_que_no-283_img_no1.png
  • a) Electrophoresis: (A)- Primer, (B)- Denaturation, (C)-Annealing
  • b)Southern blotting: (A) –Denaturation , (B)-Annealing, (C)-Elongation
  • c) Polymerase chain reaction: (A) –Denaturation , (B)-Annealing, (C)-Elongation
  • d) Tissue culture: (A) Cell collection, (B)-cell elongation, (C) Multiplication.
Q.35
Basis of DNA fingerprinting is: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) GMO
  • b)GMS
  • c) VNTR
  • d) T-DNA
Q.36
Which of the following is not required for PCR? {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Foreign gene
  • b) Reverse transcriptase
  • c) Primers
  • d) Taq polymerase
Q.37
Setting up a bioreactor with sterile medium and culturing the biological agent is: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Batch process
  • b) Continuous process.
  • c) Upstream processing
  • d) Taq polymerase
Q.38
Restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting:{submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Length of DNA sequence
  • b) Arrangement of primers.
  • c) Strength of sugar phosphate backbone.
  • d) Origin of replication.
Q.39
Read the following statements carefully and identify the plasmid; (i) This is constructed from the plasmids of Ecoli, pBR 318 and pBR (ii) It contains origin of replication (ori) that was derived from a plasmid related to naturally occurring plasmid Col E. (iii) It also possesses genes conferring resistance to antibiotics-Ampicillin (ampr) and tetracycline (tetr), and unique recognition sequence for 40 restriction endonuclease. (iv) It is 4,363 bp in size.{submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) PUC 18
  • b) PUC 8
  • c) Ti plasmid
  • d) pBR 322
Q.40
Cosmids are hybrid vectors constructed by using parts of lambda chromosome and plasmid DNA. The cos sequence of phage lambda in cosmid is necessary for: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Replication
  • b) Identification of recombinants.
  • c) Packaging the phage DNA into phage protein coats.
  • d) All of these.
Q.41
Palaeontologists unearthed a human skull during excavation. A small fragment of the scalp tissue was still attached to it. Only a little DNA could be extracted from it. If the genes of the ancient man need to be analysed the best way of getting sufficient amount of DNA from this extract is: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Subjecting DNA to polymerase chain reaction.
  • b) Subjecting DNA to gel electrophoresis.
  • c) Treating DNA with restriction endonuclease.
  • d) Hybridisation of the DNA with a DNA probe.
Q.42
You are attempting to introduce a gene that imparts larval moth resistance to bean plants. Which of the following vectors are more likely to be used? {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Phage DNA
  • b) pBR 322
  • c) Ti plasmid
  • d) E coli
Q.43
Which of the following statement is not true regarding downstream processing? i) This includes purification and separation. (ii) The product has to be formulated with suitable preservatives. (iii) Such formulations have to undergo through clinical trials in case of drugs. (iv) The downstream processing and quality control does not vary from product to product. (v) Downstream processing is the name given to the stage after fermentation when desired products are recovered and purified. {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) (ii) only
  • b) (iv) only
  • c) (iv) and (v)
  • d) (i), (ii) and (v)
Q.44
The segments of DNA produced has restriction sites I and II which creates restriction fragments a, b and c. Which one of the following gel produced by electrophoresis would represent the separation and identity of these fragments? {submitted by Adhithyan js}
unit-9_ch-1_que_no-293_img_no1.png

  • unit-9_ch-1_qn-293choice_img_no1.png

  • unit-9_ch-1_qn-293choice_img_no2.png

  • unit-9_ch-1_qn-293choice_img_no3.png

  • unit-9_ch-1_qn-293choice_img_no4.png
Q.45
A plasmid has two antibiotic resistant genes, one for Ampicillin and one for tetracycline. It is treated with a restriction enzyme that cut in the middle of the Ampicillin gene. DNA fragment containing a human globin genes were cut with the same enzyme. The plasmids and fragments are mixed, treated with ligase and used to transform bacterial cell. Clones that have taken up recombinant DNA are the ones that: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
  • a) Are blue and can grow on plates with both antibiotics.
  • b) Can grow on plates with Ampicillin but not with tetracycline
  • c) Can grow on plates with tetracycline but not with Ampicillin
  • d) Cannot grow without any antibiotics
Q.46
The given diagram shows Ecoli cloning vector pBR 322 in which numbers represent: {submitted by Adhithyan js}
unit-9_ch-1_que_no-295_img_no1.png
  • a) 1-Hind III, 2- Sal I, 3-Eco RI, 4- Bam HI, 5-Pvu II, 6-Cla I, 7-Pvu I, 8-Pst I.
  • b) 1-Hind III, 2- Sal I, 3-Eco RI, 4- Bam HI, 5-Pvu II, 6-Cla I, 7-Pst I, 8-Pvu I.
  • c) 1-Hind III, 2- Sal I, 3-Cla I, 4- Bam HI, 5-Pvu II, 6-Eco RI, 7-Pst I, 8-Pvu I.
  • d) 1-Hind III, 2- Sal I, 3-Eco RI, 4- Bam HI, 5-Pvu I, 6-Cla I, 7-Pvu II, 8-Pst I
Q.47
Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA with .. [ Odisha 2008]
  • a) Endonuclease
  • b) Exonuclease
  • c) Gyrase
  • d) Ligase
Q.48
Complementary, synthetic and random DNAs are used as ...[ CET Chd 2011]
  • a) Cloning vectors
  • b) Passenger DNA
  • c) Recombinant DNA
  • d) Transposons
Q.49
Introduction of foreign gene for improving genotype is ...[ AIIMS 2002]
  • a) Tissue culture
  • b) Vernalisation
  • c) Biotechnology
  • d) Genetic engineering
Q.50
Bt toxin is not toxic to human beings as ... [ AMU 2011]
  • a) Bt toxin formation from pro-Bt state requires pH lower than one present in human stomach
  • b) The toxin recognizes only insect specific targets
  • c) Bt toxin activation requires temperature above human body temperature
  • d) Conversion of pro-Bt to Bt state takes place only in highly alkaline conditions
0 h : 0 m : 1 s