Q.1
The term "Southern Blotting" refers to ...
  • a) Comparison of DNA fragments from two sources
  • b) Attachment of probes to DNA fragments
  • c) Transfer of DNA fragments from in vitro cellulose membrane to electrophoretic gel
  • d) Transfer of DNA fragments from electrophoretic gel to nitrocellulose sheet
Q.2
Golden Rice is rich in ...[ AFMC 2011]
  • a) Vitamin D
  • b) Vitamin C
  • c) Vitamin B
  • d) Vitamin A
Q.3
tion 1 Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. [NEET 2020] Select the correct option from the following:
(a)Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector
(b) Thermus aquaticus Construction of first rDNA molecule
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (iii) DNA polymerase
(d) Salmonella typhimurium (iv) Cry proteins
  • a) a → iii; b → ii; ; c → iv; d → i
  • b) a → iii ; b → iv ; c → i; d → ii
  • c) a → ii ; b → iv ; c → iii ; d → i
  • d) a → iv ; b → iii; c → i ; d → ii
Q.4
tion 2 Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement. [ NEET 2019]
  • a) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.
  • b) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
  • c) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.
  • d) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
Q.5
tion 3 Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant DNA technology? [NEET 2019]
  • a) Genetic code is not ambiguous
  • b) Genetic code is redundant
  • c) Genetic code is nearly universal
  • d) Genetic code is specific
Q.6
tion 4 Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called [NEET 2018]
  • a) Biodegradation
  • b) Biopiracy
  • c) Bio-infringement
  • d) Bioexploitation
Q.7
tion 5 In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is ... [ NEET 2018]
  • a) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
  • b) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
  • c) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
  • d) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
Q.8
tion 6 Match the following columns and select the correct option [NEET 2020]
Column-I Column-II
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
(b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ii) Cellular defence
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV infection
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis
  • a) a → ii; b → iii; c → iv; d → i;
  • b) a → i; b → ii; c → iii; d → iv;
  • c) a → iv; b → i; c → ii; d → iii;
  • d) a → iii; b → iii; c → i; d → iv;
Q.9
tion 7 Which gene is used as a selectable marker gene for eliminating non – transformants from transformants using Bam HI restriction enzyme in pBR 322 vector for recombinant DNA formation in Recombinant DNA technology?
  • a) Ampicillin resistant gene
  • b) Tetracycline resistant gene
  • c) Streptomycin resistant gene
  • d) Both (A) and (B)
Q.10
tion 8 Consider the following statements: (i) Microinjection is a vector less gene transfer method employed in all living cells. (ii) Hind II always cut DNA molecules at a particular point by recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs. (iii) Allelic sequence variations where more than one alleles at a locus in human population with a frequency greater than 0.Of the following statements:
  • a) (i) and (ii) are true
  • b) (i) and (iii) are true
  • c) (ii) and (iii) are true
  • d) (i) and (iii) are false
Q.11
tion 9 Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
  • a) Type III is not used in recombinant DNA technology as they recognize specific sites in DNA but do not cut these sites
  • b) Hind II produces blunt ends and which is the first restriction endonuclease isolated
  • c) Agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments according to their size, smaller fragments are towards the wells whereas larger fragments are away from the wells
  • d) Expression vectors are those which only allow multiplication (cloning) but may also be manipulated in such a way that the inserted gene may express in the host
Q.12
ion 10 Which one of the following is used to identify the translated product?
  • a) Northern blotting
  • b) Western blotting
  • c) Southern blotting
  • d) Eastern blotting
Q.13
ion 11 The advantage of using DNA polymerases from thermophilic organisms in PCR is that
  • a) the DNA polymerases of these bacteria are much faster than those from other organisms
  • b) the DNA polymerases of these bacteria can withstand the high temperatures needed to denature the DNA strands
  • c) the DNA polymerases of these bacteria never make mistakes while replicating DNA
  • d) all of the above
Q.14
ion 12 Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Restriction enzymes cut the strands of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome sites between the same two bases on the opposite strands. (ii) Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point by recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs. (iii) Separated DNA fragments cannot be visualised without staining on an agarose gel electrophoresis. (iv) Ori is the sequence responsible for controlling the copy number. (v) DNA is a positively charged molecule.
  • a) (i), (iii) and (v)
  • b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  • c) (iii), (iv) and (v)
  • d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Q.15
ion 13 In the process of Insertional inactivation:
  • a) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of enzyme β galactosidase, resulting in inactivation of the enzyme
  • b) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid
  • c) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the recognition sites of EcoRI
  • d) None of the above
Q.16
ion 14 The reason for using Taq polymerase for PCR is that
  • a) it is heat stable and can withstand the heating step of PCR
  • b) only minute amounts are needed for each cycle of PCR
  • c) it binds more readily than other polymerases to the primers
  • d) it has regions that are complementary to the primers
Q.17
ion 15 How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
  • a) adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
  • b) using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
  • c) adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
  • d) forming ʺsticky endsʺ of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching
Q.18
ion 32 Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological procedures
  • a) Nicotine
  • b) Morphine
  • c) quinine
  • d) Insulin
Q.19
ion 16 The correct sequence of making a cell competent is:
  • a) Treatment with divalent cation → incubation of cells with recombinant DNA on ice → Heat shock (42ºC) → placing on ice
  • b) Heat shock (42ºC) → incubation of cells with recombinant DNA on ice → Treatment with divalent cation → placing on ice
  • c) Treatment with divalent cation → placing on ice → incubation of cells with recombinant DNA on ice → Heat shock (42ºC)
  • d) Incubation of cells with recombinant DNA on ice → Heat shock (42ºC) → placing on ice → Treatment with divalent cation
Q.20
ion 17 Gene recombinant technology is used for:
  • a) Vectorless gene transfer into target cell
  • b) Vector based gene transfer into target cell
  • c) Direct transfer of protein complex
  • d) Both (A) and (B)
Q.21
ion 18 Thermus aquaticus is a:
  • a) Virus
  • b) Fungus
  • c) Bacterium
  • d) Nematode
Q.22
ion 19 A biologist intends to use a polymerase chain reaction to perform a genetic task. The biologist probably is trying to:
  • a) Discover new genes
  • b) Clone a gene
  • c) Cut DNA into many small fragments
  • d) Isolate DNA from living cells
Q.23
ion 20 Ability of a plant or animal cell to repeatedly divide and differentiate into a complete organism is:-
  • a) Cloning
  • b) DNA finger printing
  • c) Cellular totipotency
  • d) mitosis
Q.24
ion 21 Which one of the following is related with genetic engineering ?
  • a) Mutations
  • b) Ribosomes
  • c) Mitochondria
  • d) Plasmids
Q.25
ion 22 Bam H I, ECo R I, Sal I are the types of
  • a) Restriction endonucleases
  • b) restriction endoxidase
  • c) Restriction exonucleases
  • d) restriction polymerases
Q.26
ion 23 Restriction enzymes are isolated chiefly from.......
  • a) Algae
  • b) Fungi
  • c) Protozoans
  • d) Prokaryotes
Q.27
ion 24 Restriction enzymes belong to which class of enzymes?
  • a) Nucleolase
  • b) Exo nucleases
  • c) Nucleases
  • d) Endonucleases
Q.28
ion 25 Which is the first step in the process recombinant DNA technology?
  • a) Denaturing of DNA
  • b) Annealing of DNA
  • c) Isolation of Donor DNA
  • d) down streaming
Q.29
ion 26 Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called
  • c) Redundant genes
  • d) Regulatory gene
  • a) Polymorphic genes
  • b) operator gene
Q.30
ion 27 Match the following in order to obtain particular gene product:
column I column II
P) Radio active andibody (a) substance that can be constructed in the laboratory
Q) Artificial gene (b) substance that can be used to identify colonies of genetically engineered bacteria that makes particular gene product
R) Amplification (c) Abnormal enhanced replication of a plasmid many copies of plasmid in each cell
(S) To produce clones (d) A large population of identical cells
(t)shotgun cloning (e) The use of entire array of genes of an organism
  • a) P=b; Q=a; R=c; S=d; T=e
  • b) P=a; Q=c; R=b; S=d; T=e
  • c) P=a; Q=c; R=d; S=b; T=e
  • d) P=b; Q=c; R=e; S=d; T=a
Q.31
ion 28 Assertion - Plasmids are tools of genetic engineering Reason - Virulence plasmids provide pathogenicity to bacteria
  • a) Assertion is correct, Reason is explanation of Assertion
  • b) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct but it is not explanation of Assertion
  • c) Assertion is correct, Reason is false
  • d) Assertion is wrong, Reason correct
Q.32
ion 29 Find the incorrect statement
  • a) Gene therapy is a genetic engineering technique used to treat disease at molecular level by replacing defective genes with normal genes
  • b) Calcitonin is a medically useful recombinant product in the treatment of infertility
  • c) Bt toxin is a Biodegradable insecticide obtained from bacillus thuringiensis
  • d) Totipotency is the potential ability of a cell to develop into a complete plant
Q.33
ion 30 What does Bt stand For the Popular crop Bt Cotton ?
  • a) Best
  • b) Best type
  • c) Biotechnology
  • d) Bacillus thuringiensis
Q.34
ion 31 Matching sequence of DNA between two evidences, one of the criminal with the suspect is known as
  • a) DNA finger printing
  • b) DNA amplification
  • c) Gene mapping
  • d) DNA resolution
Q.35
on 170 Which of the following are parts of biotechnology? (i) In vitro fertilization. (ii) Synthesis of a gene. (iii) Correcting a defective gene. (iv) Developing a DNA vaccine.
  • a) (i) and (ii)
  • b) (ii) and (iii)
  • c) (iii) and (iv)
  • d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Q.36
ion 33 The Ti in Ti plasmid stands for:
  • a) Tumour inciting
  • b) Tumour inducing
  • c) Transposon incumbent
  • d) Transition impact
Q.37
ion 34 In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother's womb and:
  • a) In the eight cell stage, the individual cells are separated under electric field for the further development in culture media
  • b) The egg is divided into 4 pair of cells which are implanted into the womb of other cows
  • c) In the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb of other cows
  • d) From this upto eight identical twins are produced
Q.38
ion 35 Telomeric sequences are found in:
  • a) BAC
  • b) YAC
  • c) HAC
  • d) PAC
Q.39
ion 36 The Southern blotting technique depends on
  • a) similarities between the sequences of probe DNA and experimental DNA
  • b) similarities between the sequences of probe RNA and experimental RNA
  • c) similarities between the sequences of probe protein and experimental protein
  • d) the molecular mass of proteins
Q.40
ion 37 Charged molecules are separated based on varying rates of migration through a solid matrix when subjected to an electric field. This technique is known as
  • a) photo reactivation
  • b) gel electrophoresis
  • c) autoradiography
  • d) blotting
Q.41
ion 38 DNA was subjected to restriction enzyme digestion with Sma I. Not the entire DNA in tube was digested. The undigested DNA can be visualized by _____ compound using _________ technique. Select the correct option that satisfies the blanks:
  • a) Ethidium bromide, Gene transfer
  • b) Bromophenol blue, Gene gun
  • c) Ethidium bromide, Electrophoresis
  • d) Ethidium bromide, Gene cloning
Q.42
ion 39 Read the following statements and select the correct ones: (i) Same kind of sticky ends are produced when DNA has been cut by different restriction enzymes. (ii) Exonucleases make cuts at specific positions with the DNA. (iii) Hind II was the first restriction endonuclease to be isolated. (iv) A bacteriophage has the ability to replicate within the bacterial cells by integrating its DNA with bacterial DNA. (v) Presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector facilitates the gene cloning.
  • a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
  • b) (i) and (iv)
  • c) (iii) and (iv)
  • d) (iii), (iv) and (v)
Q.43
ion 40 Read the salient features of Human Genome and choose the correct statements: (i) Almost 99.9% of nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people. (ii) The average gene consists of 30000 bases. (iii) Minimum number of genes are present on Holandric chromosomes. (iv) More than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.
  • a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
  • b) (ii) and (iv)
  • c) (i) and (iii)
  • d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Q.44
ion 41 For gene probes to be useful they must
  • a) be large enough to contain gene-specific sequences
  • b) be labelled in some manner to allow detection
  • c) both (a) and (b)
  • d) none of the above
Q.45
ion 42 The flow chart given below represents the process of recombinant DNA technology. Identify A, B, C and D
unit-9_ch-2_que_no-42_img_no1.png
  • a) A – Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction exonucleases, C – DNA ligase, D – Transformation
  • b) A – Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction endonuclease, C – DNA ligase, D – Transformation
  • c) A – Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction endonuclease, C – Hydrolase, D – Transformation
  • d) A – Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction endonuclease, C – Hydrolase, D – Transduction
Q.46
ion 43 Why is it so important to be able to amplify DNA fragments when studying genes?
  • a) DNA fragments are too small to use individually
  • b) A gene may represent only a millionth of the cell's DNA
  • c) Restriction enzymes cut DNA into fragments that are too small
  • d) A clone requires multiple copies of each gene per clone
Q.47
ion 44 Analysis of the data obtained shows that two students each have two fragments, two students each have three fragments, and two students each have one only. What does this demonstrate?
  • a) Each pair of students has a different gene for this function
  • b) The two students who have two fragments have one restriction site in this region
  • c) The two students who have two fragments have two restriction sites within this gene
  • d) The students with three fragments are said to have "fragile sites"
Q.48
ion 61 Human genome project was published in
  • a) 1999
  • b) 2008
  • c) 2005
  • d) 2002
Q.49
ion 62 What is the normal role of restriction endonuclease in bacterial cells?
  • a) To degrade the bacterial chromosome into small pieces during replication
  • b) To degrade invading phage DNA
  • c) To produce RNA primers for replication
  • d) All of the above
Q.50
ion 79 Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing ___
  • a) Transgenic models for studying new treatments for Certain cardiac diseases
  • b) Transgenic Cow - Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee
  • c) Animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power
  • d) Transgenic mice for testing safety of polio Vaccine before use in humans
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