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Quiz 7
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Q.1
The term "Southern Blotting" refers to ...
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a) Comparison of DNA fragments from two sources
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b) Attachment of probes to DNA fragments
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c) Transfer of DNA fragments from in vitro cellulose membrane to electrophoretic gel
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d) Transfer of DNA fragments from electrophoretic gel to nitrocellulose sheet
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.2
Golden Rice is rich in ...[ AFMC 2011]
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a) Vitamin D
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b) Vitamin C
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c) Vitamin B
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d) Vitamin A
Explanation
Answer : (d)
Q.3
tion 1 Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. [NEET 2020] Select the correct option from the following:
(a)Bacillus thuringiensis
(i) Cloning vector
(b) Thermus aquaticus
Construction of first rDNA molecule
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(iii) DNA polymerase
(d) Salmonella typhimurium
(iv) Cry proteins
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a) a → iii; b → ii; ; c → iv; d → i
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b) a → iii ; b → iv ; c → i; d → ii
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c) a → ii ; b → iv ; c → iii ; d → i
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d) a → iv ; b → iii; c → i ; d → ii
Explanation
DNA polymerase is isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus. Specific Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis. The toxin is coded by a gene cryIAc named cry. There are a number of them, for example, the proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and cryIIAb control the cotton bollworms, that of cryIAb controls corn borer. The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens has now been modified into a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to the plants but is still able to use the mechanisms to deliver genes of our interest into a variety of plants. The construction of the first recombinant DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid (autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA) of Salmonella typhimurium. Answer:(d)
Q.4
tion 2 Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement. [ NEET 2019]
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a) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.
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b) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
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c) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.
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d) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
Explanation
restriction enzymes are ‘molecular scissors’–characteristics are as follows 1) Cleaves DNA at specific restriction sites. 2) Can be palindromic 3) Every place there is restriction site on the DAN, it will cleave the DNA 4) Different restriction enzymes will have different DNA sequences for restriction sites 5) Restriction enzymes can be used over and over again 6) Where the DNA cuts, it cam result in blunt ends or staggered cuts with sticky ends Option (b) statement is not correct as it states "cuts only one strand" Answer:(b)
Q.5
tion 3 Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant DNA technology? [NEET 2019]
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a) Genetic code is not ambiguous
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b) Genetic code is redundant
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c) Genetic code is nearly universal
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d) Genetic code is specific
Explanation
In recombinant DNA technology bacteria is able to produce human insulin because genetic code is nearly universal. Answer:(c)
Q.6
tion 4 Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called [NEET 2018]
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a) Biodegradation
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b) Biopiracy
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c) Bio-infringement
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d) Bioexploitation
Explanation
Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment. Answer:(b)
Q.7
tion 5 In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is ... [ NEET 2018]
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a) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
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b) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
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c) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
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d) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
Explanation
Some ethical standards are required to evaluate the morality of all human activities that might help or harm living organisms. The Indian Government has set up organisations such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee), which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services. Answer:(d)
Q.8
tion 6 Match the following columns and select the correct option [NEET 2020]
Column-I
Column-II
(a) Bt cotton
(i) Gene therapy
(b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
(ii) Cellular defence
(c) RNAi
(iii) Detection of HIV infection
(d) PCR
(iv)
Bacillus thuringiensis
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a) a → ii; b → iii; c → iv; d → i;
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b) a → i; b → ii; c → iii; d → iv;
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c) a → iv; b → i; c → ii; d → iii;
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d) a → iii; b → iii; c → i; d → iv;
Explanation
The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium called Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt for short). Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and been expressed in plants to provide resistance to insects without the need for insecticides. RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense. PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients. It is being used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients too. Answer:(c)
Q.9
tion 7 Which gene is used as a selectable marker gene for eliminating non – transformants from transformants using Bam HI restriction enzyme in pBR 322 vector for recombinant DNA formation in Recombinant DNA technology?
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a) Ampicillin resistant gene
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b) Tetracycline resistant gene
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c) Streptomycin resistant gene
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d) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation
Selectable markers are those genes which help in selecting those host cells which contain vectors (i.e., transformants) and eliminating the non- transformants. pBR322 is a well characterized plasmid cloning vector containing two antibiotic resistance genes, ampicillin (Amp) and tetracycline (Tet), and several convenient restriction endonuclease sites including EcoRI (RI) and BamHI (Bam). Recombinant DNA technology is the joining together of DNA molecules from two different species. The recombined DNA molecule is inserted into a host organism to produce new genetic combinations Answer:(a)
Q.10
tion 8 Consider the following statements: (i) Microinjection is a vector less gene transfer method employed in all living cells. (ii) Hind II always cut DNA molecules at a particular point by recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs. (iii) Allelic sequence variations where more than one alleles at a locus in human population with a frequency greater than 0.Of the following statements:
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a) (i) and (ii) are true
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b) (i) and (iii) are true
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c) (ii) and (iii) are true
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d) (i) and (iii) are false
Explanation
A wide range of cell types can be microinjected, but we typically use large adherent cells. Adherent cells, also called anchorage-dependent cells, are grown in cell culture medium while attached to the bottom of a tissue culture flask.Statement (I) not correct Allelic (An allele is a variant form of a gene.) sequence variation has traditionally been described as a DNA polymorphism if more than one variant (allele) at a locus occurs in human population with a frequency greater than 0.01 . Statement (iii) is not correct Answer:(d)
Q.11
tion 9 Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
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a) Type III is not used in recombinant DNA technology as they recognize specific sites in DNA but do not cut these sites
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b) Hind II produces blunt ends and which is the first restriction endonuclease isolated
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c) Agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments according to their size, smaller fragments are towards the wells whereas larger fragments are away from the wells
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d) Expression vectors are those which only allow multiplication (cloning) but may also be manipulated in such a way that the inserted gene may express in the host
Explanation
In an agarose gel electrophoresis, shortest pieces of DNA will be close to the positive end of the gel i.e., away from the wells, while the longest pieces of DNA will remain near the wells. Answer:(c)
Q.12
ion 10 Which one of the following is used to identify the translated product?
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a) Northern blotting
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b) Western blotting
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c) Southern blotting
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d) Eastern blotting
Explanation
Western blotting is a laboratory technique used to detect a specific protein in a blood or tissue sample. The method involves using gel electrophoresis to separate the sample's proteins. The separated proteins are transferred out of the gel to the surface of a membrane. Answer:(b)
Q.13
ion 11 The advantage of using DNA polymerases from thermophilic organisms in PCR is that
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a) the DNA polymerases of these bacteria are much faster than those from other organisms
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b) the DNA polymerases of these bacteria can withstand the high temperatures needed to denature the DNA strands
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c) the DNA polymerases of these bacteria never make mistakes while replicating DNA
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d) all of the above
Explanation
In PCR technique, DNA polymerase is isolated from a bacterium Thermus aquaticus, which remain active during the high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA. Answer:(b)
Q.14
ion 12 Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Restriction enzymes cut the strands of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome sites between the same two bases on the opposite strands. (ii) Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point by recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs. (iii) Separated DNA fragments cannot be visualised without staining on an agarose gel electrophoresis. (iv) Ori is the sequence responsible for controlling the copy number. (v) DNA is a positively charged molecule.
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a) (i), (iii) and (v)
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b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
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c) (iii), (iv) and (v)
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d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
Explanation
Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome sites, but between the same two bases on the opposite strands. This leaves single stranded portions at the ends. (i) is correct. It was found that Hind II always cut DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of six base pairs. This specific base sequence is known as the recognition sequence for Hind II. (ii) is correct. The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation (you cannot see pure DNA fragments in the visible light and without staining). (iii) is correct. Origin of replication (ori) : This is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells. This sequence is also responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA. (iv) is correct. DNA is negatively charged because of the presence of phosphate groups in nucleotides. (v) is incorrect. Answer:(b)
Q.15
ion 13 In the process of Insertional inactivation:
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a) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of enzyme β galactosidase, resulting in inactivation of the enzyme
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b) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid
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c) A recombinant DNA is inserted within the recognition sites of EcoRI
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d) None of the above
Explanation
Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is a cumbersome procedure because it requires simultaneous plating on two plates having different antibiotics. Therefore, alternative selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. In this, a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, β-galactosidase. This results into inactivation of the gene for synthesis of this enzyme, which is referred to as insertional inactivation. Answer:(a)
Q.16
ion 14 The reason for using Taq polymerase for PCR is that
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a) it is heat stable and can withstand the heating step of PCR
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b) only minute amounts are needed for each cycle of PCR
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c) it binds more readily than other polymerases to the primers
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d) it has regions that are complementary to the primers
Explanation
DNA polymerase (isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus), which remain active during the high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA. Answer:(a)
Q.17
ion 15 How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
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a) adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
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b) using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
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c) adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
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d) forming ʺsticky endsʺ of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching
Explanation
Bacteria protect their DNA by modifying their own recognition sequences, usually by adding methyl (CH3) molecules to nucleotides in the recognition sequences and then relying on the restriction enzymes' capacity to recognize and cleave only unmethylated recognition sequences. Answer:(a)
Q.18
ion 32 Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological procedures
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a) Nicotine
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b) Morphine
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c) quinine
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d) Insulin
Explanation
In 1983, Eli Lilly an American company prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulin and introduced them in plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin. Answer:(d)
Q.19
ion 16 The correct sequence of making a cell competent is:
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a) Treatment with divalent cation → incubation of cells with recombinant DNA on ice → Heat shock (42ºC) → placing on ice
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b) Heat shock (42ºC) → incubation of cells with recombinant DNA on ice → Treatment with divalent cation → placing on ice
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c) Treatment with divalent cation → placing on ice → incubation of cells with recombinant DNA on ice → Heat shock (42ºC)
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d) Incubation of cells with recombinant DNA on ice → Heat shock (42ºC) → placing on ice → Treatment with divalent cation
Explanation
In order to force a bacterium to take up the plasmid, the bacterial cells have to be made competent. This is done by treating them with a specific concentration of divalent cations such as calcium which increases the efficiency with which the DNA molecule enters the bacteria through pores in its cell wall. Recombinant DNA is then forced into such cells by incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice followed by placing them immediately at heat shock and then again into ice. This enables the bacteria to take up the recombinant DNA. Answer:(a)
Q.20
ion 17 Gene recombinant technology is used for:
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a) Vectorless gene transfer into target cell
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b) Vector based gene transfer into target cell
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c) Direct transfer of protein complex
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d) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation
The techniques of genetic engineering which include creation of recombinant DNA, use of gene cloning and gene transfer, overcome this limitation and allows us to isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes into the target organism. Answer:(d)
Q.21
ion 18 Thermus aquaticus is a:
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a) Virus
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b) Fungus
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c) Bacterium
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d) Nematode
Explanation
Thermus aquaticus is a species of bacterium that can tolerate high temperatures, one of several thermophilic bacteria that belong to the Deinococcota phylum. Answer:(c)
Q.22
ion 19 A biologist intends to use a polymerase chain reaction to perform a genetic task. The biologist probably is trying to:
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a) Discover new genes
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b) Clone a gene
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c) Cut DNA into many small fragments
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d) Isolate DNA from living cells
Explanation
DNA polymerases are widely used for DNA manipulation in vitro, including DNA cloning, sequencing, labeling, mutagenesis, and other purposes. DNA polymerase is an essential component for PCR due to its key role in synthesizing new DNA strands. Answer:(b)
Q.23
ion 20 Ability of a plant or animal cell to repeatedly divide and differentiate into a complete organism is:-
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a) Cloning
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b) DNA finger printing
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c) Cellular totipotency
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d) mitosis
Explanation
Cellular totipotency is the inherent potentiality of a plant cell to give rise to a whole plant, a capacity that is retained even after a cell has undergone final differentiation in the plant body. Answer:(c)
Q.24
ion 21 Which one of the following is related with genetic engineering ?
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a) Mutations
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b) Ribosomes
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c) Mitochondria
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d) Plasmids
Explanation
Small ringlets of DNA called plasmids floats about freely in the cytoplasm of certain bacterial cells and replicate independently from the coding strand of DNA. Plasmid DNA act as vectors to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it Answer:(d)
Q.25
ion 22 Bam H I, ECo R I, Sal I are the types of
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a) Restriction endonucleases
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b) restriction endoxidase
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c) Restriction exonucleases
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d) restriction polymerases
Explanation
EcoRI is an endonuclease enzyme isolated from strains of E. coli, and is part of the restriction modification system. SalI is a restriction endonuclease used for molecular biology methods to cleave DNA at the recognition sequence 5′-G/TCGAC-3′, generating fragments with 5′-cohesive ends BamH I is a type II restriction endonuclease, having the capacity for recognizing short sequences of DNA. Answer:(a)
Q.26
ion 23 Restriction enzymes are isolated chiefly from.......
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a) Algae
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b) Fungi
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c) Protozoans
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d) Prokaryotes
Explanation
More than 400 restriction enzymes have been isolated from the bacteria that manufacture them Answer:(b)
Q.27
ion 24 Restriction enzymes belong to which class of enzymes?
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a) Nucleolase
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b) Exo nucleases
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c) Nucleases
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d) Endonucleases
Explanation
Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases. They are of two types: Exonuclease They remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA. Endonuclease Endonucleases are enzymes that produce internal cuts called cleavage in DNA molecules. Endonucleases cleave DNA molecules at random sites. A class of endonucleases cleaves DNA only within or near those sites with specific base sequences. These are called restriction endonucleases. Sites recognized by them called recognition sites. (These sites differ for different restriction enzymes). Answer:(c)
Q.28
ion 25 Which is the first step in the process recombinant DNA technology?
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a) Denaturing of DNA
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b) Annealing of DNA
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c) Isolation of Donor DNA
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d) down streaming
Explanation
Isolation of DNA → Restriction enzyme digestion → Ligation → Transformation Answer:(c)
Q.29
ion 26 Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called
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c) Redundant genes
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d) Regulatory gene
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a) Polymorphic genes
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b) operator gene
Explanation
Transcription factors are proteins that help turn specific genes "on" or "off" by binding to nearby DNA. Operator genes contain the code necessary to begin the process of transcribing the DNA message of one or more structural genes into mRNA. Answer:(c)
Q.30
ion 27 Match the following in order to obtain particular gene product:
column I
column II
P) Radio active andibody
(a) substance that can be constructed in the laboratory
Q) Artificial gene
(b) substance that can be used to identify colonies of genetically engineered bacteria that makes particular gene product
R) Amplification
(c) Abnormal enhanced replication of a plasmid many copies of plasmid in each cell
(S) To produce clones
(d) A large population of identical cells
(t)shotgun cloning
(e) The use of entire array of genes of an organism
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a) P=b; Q=a; R=c; S=d; T=e
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b) P=a; Q=c; R=b; S=d; T=e
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c) P=a; Q=c; R=d; S=b; T=e
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d) P=b; Q=c; R=e; S=d; T=a
Explanation
Radio active andibody
substance that can be used to identify colonies of genetically engineered bacteria that makes particular gene product
Artificial gene
substance that can be constructed in the laboratory
Amplification
The production of multiple copies of a sequence of DNA.
Abnormal enhanced replication of a plasmid many copies of plasmid in each cell
To produce clones
process of producing individual organisms with identical or virtually identical DNA
A large population of identical cells
shotgun cloning
A method to generate the templates needed for DNA sequencing.
The use of entire array of genes of an organism
Answer:(a)
Q.31
ion 28 Assertion - Plasmids are tools of genetic engineering Reason - Virulence plasmids provide pathogenicity to bacteria
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a) Assertion is correct, Reason is explanation of Assertion
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b) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct but it is not explanation of Assertion
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c) Assertion is correct, Reason is false
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d) Assertion is wrong, Reason correct
Explanation
Plasmids are used in the techniques and research of genetic engineering and gene therapy by gene transfer to bacterial cells or to cells of superior organisms. Assertion is true. Virulence plasmids help bacteria infect humans, animals, or even plants, by a variety of mechanisms. Reason is true but not correct explanation of assertion. Answer:(b)
Q.32
ion 29 Find the incorrect statement
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a) Gene therapy is a genetic engineering technique used to treat disease at molecular level by replacing defective genes with normal genes
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b) Calcitonin is a medically useful recombinant product in the treatment of infertility
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c) Bt toxin is a Biodegradable insecticide obtained from bacillus thuringiensis
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d) Totipotency is the potential ability of a cell to develop into a complete plant
Explanation
Calcitonin injection is used to treat Paget's disease of bone, or high levels of calcium in the blood (hypercalcemia). Calcitonin injection is also used to treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Answer:(b)
Q.33
ion 30 What does Bt stand For the Popular crop Bt Cotton ?
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a) Best
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b) Best type
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c) Biotechnology
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d) Bacillus thuringiensis
Explanation
Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium called Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt for short). Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and been expressed in plants to provide resistance to insects without the need for insecticides Answer:(d)
Q.34
ion 31 Matching sequence of DNA between two evidences, one of the criminal with the suspect is known as
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a) DNA finger printing
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b) DNA amplification
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c) Gene mapping
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d) DNA resolution
Explanation
DNA fingerprinting is a laboratory technique used to establish a link between biological evidence and a suspect in a criminal investigation. A DNA sample taken from a crime scene is compared with a DNA sample from a suspect. If the two DNA profiles are a match, then the evidence came from that suspect. Answer:(d)
Q.35
on 170 Which of the following are parts of biotechnology? (i) In vitro fertilization. (ii) Synthesis of a gene. (iii) Correcting a defective gene. (iv) Developing a DNA vaccine.
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a) (i) and (ii)
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b) (ii) and (iii)
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c) (iii) and (iv)
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d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation
Answer:(d)
Q.36
ion 33 The Ti in Ti plasmid stands for:
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a) Tumour inciting
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b) Tumour inducing
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c) Transposon incumbent
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d) Transition impact
Explanation
The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens has now been modified into a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to the plants but is still able to use the mechanisms to deliver genes of our interest into a variety of plants. Answer:(b)
Q.37
ion 34 In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother's womb and:
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a) In the eight cell stage, the individual cells are separated under electric field for the further development in culture media
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b) The egg is divided into 4 pair of cells which are implanted into the womb of other cows
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c) In the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb of other cows
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d) From this upto eight identical twins are produced
Explanation
In the eight-cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb of other cows. This process is known as an artificial twinning method. Answer:(c)
Q.38
ion 35 Telomeric sequences are found in:
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a) BAC
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b) YAC
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c) HAC
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d) PAC
Explanation
The YAC vector itself provides the essential elements for propagation of DNA as a chromosome in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae. These elements include a yeast centromere, two functional telomeres, and auxotrophic markers for selection of the YAC in an appropriate yeast host. Answer:(b)
Q.39
ion 36 The Southern blotting technique depends on
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a) similarities between the sequences of probe DNA and experimental DNA
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b) similarities between the sequences of probe RNA and experimental RNA
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c) similarities between the sequences of probe protein and experimental protein
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d) the molecular mass of proteins
Explanation
A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. The Southern blot is a method for hybridizing one or more labeled DNA probes to a large number of DNA fragments and discriminating among them. The procedure depends on the ability of denatured DNA single strands to bind tightly to nitrocellulose under certain conditions. Answer:(a)
Q.40
ion 37 Charged molecules are separated based on varying rates of migration through a solid matrix when subjected to an electric field. This technique is known as
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a) photo reactivation
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b) gel electrophoresis
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c) autoradiography
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d) blotting
Explanation
The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA. These fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Since DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules they can be separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix (Agarose gel). The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves. Answer:(b)
Q.41
ion 38 DNA was subjected to restriction enzyme digestion with Sma I. Not the entire DNA in tube was digested. The undigested DNA can be visualized by _____ compound using _________ technique. Select the correct option that satisfies the blanks:
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a) Ethidium bromide, Gene transfer
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b) Bromophenol blue, Gene gun
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c) Ethidium bromide, Electrophoresis
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d) Ethidium bromide, Gene cloning
Explanation
The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA. These fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Since DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules they can be separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix (Agarose gel) The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation. Answer:(c)
Q.42
ion 39 Read the following statements and select the correct ones: (i) Same kind of sticky ends are produced when DNA has been cut by different restriction enzymes. (ii) Exonucleases make cuts at specific positions with the DNA. (iii) Hind II was the first restriction endonuclease to be isolated. (iv) A bacteriophage has the ability to replicate within the bacterial cells by integrating its DNA with bacterial DNA. (v) Presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector facilitates the gene cloning.
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a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
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b) (i) and (iv)
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c) (iii) and (iv)
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d) (iii), (iv) and (v)
Explanation
When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of ‘sticky-ends’ and, these can be joined together (end-to-end) using DNA ligases. (i) is incorrect. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA. (ii) is incorrect. The first restriction endonuclease–Hind II. (iii) is correct. Plasmids and bacteriophages have the ability to replicate within bacterial cells independent of the control of chromosomal DNA. (iv) is correct. Presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector will generate several fragments, which will complicate the gene cloning. (v) is incorrect. Answer:(c)
Q.43
ion 40 Read the salient features of Human Genome and choose the correct statements: (i) Almost 99.9% of nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people. (ii) The average gene consists of 30000 bases. (iii) Minimum number of genes are present on Holandric chromosomes. (iv) More than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.
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a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
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b) (ii) and (iv)
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c) (i) and (iii)
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d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation
Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people. (i) is correct. The average gene consists of 3000 bases, not 30000. (ii) is wrong. Holandric genes are genes situated in the nonhomologous region of the Y chromosome. Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the Y has the fewest (231). (iii) is correct. Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins. (iv) is wrong. Answer:(c)
Q.44
ion 41 For gene probes to be useful they must
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a) be large enough to contain gene-specific sequences
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b) be labelled in some manner to allow detection
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c) both (a) and (b)
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d) none of the above
Explanation
Gene-specific probes are produced from specific mRNA by the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which synthesizes a complementary DNA copy (cDNA) from mRNA. If radioactive bases are added to the reaction mixture, the cDNA will be labelled and can thus be used as a hybridization probe to look for the complementary sequences. Answer:(c)
Q.45
ion 42 The flow chart given below represents the process of recombinant DNA technology. Identify A, B, C and D
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a) A – Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction exonucleases, C – DNA ligase, D – Transformation
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b) A – Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction endonuclease, C – DNA ligase, D – Transformation
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c) A – Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction endonuclease, C – Hydrolase, D – Transformation
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d) A – Restriction endonuclease, B – Restriction endonuclease, C – Hydrolase, D – Transduction
Explanation
Answer:(b)
Q.46
ion 43 Why is it so important to be able to amplify DNA fragments when studying genes?
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a) DNA fragments are too small to use individually
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b) A gene may represent only a millionth of the cell's DNA
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c) Restriction enzymes cut DNA into fragments that are too small
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d) A clone requires multiple copies of each gene per clone
Explanation
A gene may represent only a millionth of the cell's DNA. It's necessary so that a specific region of a genome can be isolated. Answer:(b)
Q.47
ion 44 Analysis of the data obtained shows that two students each have two fragments, two students each have three fragments, and two students each have one only. What does this demonstrate?
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a) Each pair of students has a different gene for this function
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b) The two students who have two fragments have one restriction site in this region
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c) The two students who have two fragments have two restriction sites within this gene
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d) The students with three fragments are said to have "fragile sites"
Explanation
If there are two fragments then fragments can be ligated at one site. This is called restriction site. The two students who have two fragments have one restriction site in this region. Answer:(b)
Q.48
ion 61 Human genome project was published in
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a) 1999
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b) 2008
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c) 2005
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d) 2002
Explanation
The International Human Genome Sequencing Consortium published the first draft of the human genome in the journal Nature in February 2001 with the sequence of the entire genome's three billion base pairs some 90 percent complete. Answer:(d)
Q.49
ion 62 What is the normal role of restriction endonuclease in bacterial cells?
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a) To degrade the bacterial chromosome into small pieces during replication
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b) To degrade invading phage DNA
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c) To produce RNA primers for replication
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d) All of the above
Explanation
Restriction endonucleases present in bacteria provide a defence mechanism against invading viruses. Inside the bacterial cell, these enzymes selectively cut up foreign DNA. Answer:(b)
Q.50
ion 79 Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing ___
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a) Transgenic models for studying new treatments for Certain cardiac diseases
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b) Transgenic Cow - Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee
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c) Animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power
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d) Transgenic mice for testing safety of polio Vaccine before use in humans
Explanation
Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine. In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk (2.4 grams per litre. Transgenic models exist for many human diseases such as cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s. Answer:(d)
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