The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are:naked viruses.vegetative bacteria and fungi.endospores.protozoan cysts.Mycobacterium and Staphylococcus.
  • sterilization.
  • 121 C at 15 psi
  • vegetative bacteria
  • Hydrogen peroxide.
The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the:thermal death point (TDP).thermal death time (TDT).sporicidal time.death phase point.None of the choices are correct.
  • Chlorhexidine.
  • thermal death time
  • sterilization.
  • the world health organization
Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called _____ will remain preserved and viable for years.
  • lyophilization.
  • sanitization.
  • both a and b
  • lypophilization
Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal? Tincture of iodineMerthiolateSilver nitrate solutionsZincMercurochrome
  • glutaraldehyde
  • both a and b
  • tincture
  • Alcohol
A method for sterilizing milk, called _____ temperature treatment, uses 134° C for 1 to 2 seconds.
  • glutaraldehyde
  • disinfection.
  • ultrahigh
  • antisepsis.
All of the following are correct about the autoclave, except: it is important not to overload the chamber.it is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances.the duration of the process depends on how full the chamber is.it is the temperature that kills the microbes, not the pressure by itself.sterilization is achieved when steam condenses against the objects in the chamber and raises their temperatures.
  • lyophilization.
  • it is effective for sterilizing
  • tincture
  • they are active in the presence of organic matter.
_____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage.
  • nonionizing
  • chlorine
  • ultrahigh
  • chloramines
Alcohols:denature proteins when in a 50-95% solution.are used to disinfect items by soaking.are skin degerming agents.at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids.All of the choices are correct.
  • chloramines
  • is less efficent
  • Chlorhexidine.
  • all are correct
__________ or steam sterilization is the process by which steam is heated under pressure to sterilize objects.
  • autoclaving
  • antisepsis.
  • degermation.
  • nonionizing
_____ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA that then leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers.
  • nonionizing
  • Disinfection
  • chlorine
  • sanitization.
Dry heat:is less efficient than moist heat.cannot sterilize.includes tyndallization.is used in devices called autoclaves.will sterilize at 121° C for 15 minutes.
  • chloramines
  • Chlorhexidine.
  • is less efficent
  • Disinfection
Endospores can be killed by:dry heat at 170° C for 2 hours.incineration.glutaldehyde for 3 or more hours.ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours.All of the choices are correct
  • Chlorhexidine.
  • silver nitrate
  • all are correct
  • thermal death time
Which of these metals have antimicrobial properties associated with them?SilverGoldTinAluminumBoth A and B are correct.
  • all are correct
  • both a and b
  • lypophilization
  • tincture
All of the following are correct about food irradiation, except:food is not made radioactive by the process.the World Health Organization does not endorse this process.it is approved in the U.S. for beef, chicken, and pork.it can lead to a longer shelf life for the irradiated food.no irradiated food can be sold without clear labeling.
  • this formulation allows a quick release
  • it is effective for sterilizing
  • the world health organization
  • all are correct
Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes? ground beef and other meat and poultryhuman tissues such as heart valves and skinoperating room airsurgical glovesAll of the choices are correct.
  • chloramines
  • hydrogen peroxide
  • all are correct
  • bacterial endospores
Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called
  • latent viruses.
  • DNA polymerase.
  • Capsomeres.
  • biosynthesis
Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication?
  • PrPSc
  • synthesis of DNA
  • DNA polymerase
  • 2; 3; 4; 1
Assume a patient had chickenpox (human herpesvirus 3) as a child. Which line on the graph in Figure 11.2 would show the number of viruses present in this person as a 60-year-old with shingles (human herpesvirus 3)?
  • plaque.
  • e
  • c
  • togavirus
Assume a patient has influenza. During which time on the graph in Figure 11.2 would the patient show the symptoms of the illness?
  • They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host
  • e
  • c
  • togavirus
A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the
  • cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates.
  • Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae.
  • They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
  • presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.
The structures illustrated in Figure 11.1 are composed of
  • cold sores.
  • a segmented genome
  • Capsomeres.
  • DNA polymerase
1) How do all viruses differ from bacteria?
  • immunity to reinfection by any phage
  • They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
  • Viruses are not composed of cells.
  • It causes lysis of host cells.
Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a picornavirus?
  • 2; 3; 4; 1
  • biochemical tests
  • synthesis of DNA
  • synthesis of - strand RNA
) An example of a latent viral infection is
  • culture media
  • release
  • Capsomeres.
  • cold sores.
The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step?
  • synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template
  • injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell
  • synthesis of DNA
  • synthesis of double-stranded DNA
Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene?
  • PrPSc
  • culture media
  • DNA polymerase
  • It causes lysis of host cells.
The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called
  • Capsomeres.
  • lysozyme
  • Hepadnaviridae.
  • budding.
Continuous cell lines differ from primary cell lines in that
  • Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
  • continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations.
  • presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.
  • cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates.
A viral species is a group of viruses that
  • the disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
  • has the same genetic information and ecological niche.
  • The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages.
  • presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.
The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by
  • presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.
  • injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell
  • cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates.
  • synthesis of double-stranded DNA
Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals?
  • They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host
  • Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
  • 2; 3; 4; 1
  • They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. To which group does it most likely belong?
  • biosynthesis
  • uncoating
  • togavirus
  • Hepadnaviridae.
A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a
  • Hepadnaviridae.
  • lysozyme
  • plaque.
  • PrPSc
DNA made from an RNA template will be incorporated into the virus capsid of
  • DNA polymerase.
  • latent viruses.
  • Hepadnaviridae.
  • Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae.
A persistent infection is one in which
  • The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages.
  • presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.
  • Viruses are not composed of cells.
  • the disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?
  • It causes lysis of host cells.
  • 2; 3; 4; 1
  • culture media
  • Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion?
  • 2; 3; 4; 1
  • They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
  • PrPSc
  • It causes lysis of host cells.
A viroid is a(n)
  • injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell
  • the disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
  • cause tumors to develop.
  • infectious piece of RNA without a capsid.
Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT
  • immunity to reinfection by any phage
  • Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
  • RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  • presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.
The following steps occur during biosynthesis of a + strand RNA virus. What is the third step?
  • synthesis of DNA
  • synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template
  • synthesis of - strand RNA
  • biosynthesis
A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient?
  • The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages.
  • The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient.
  • has the same genetic information and ecological niche.
  • injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell
An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
  • release
  • lysozyme
  • plaque.
  • cold sores.
Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT
  • Hepadnaviridae.
  • DNA polymerase
  • DNA polymerase.
  • latent viruses.
Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE?
  • It causes lysis of host cells.
  • Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
  • They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
  • culture media
Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes?
  • It causes lysis of host cells.
  • RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  • Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
  • a segmented genome
An infectious protein is a
  • PrPSc
  • Capsomeres.
  • prion
  • cold sores.
6) Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps?
  • biosynthesis
  • lysozyme
  • biochemical tests
  • synthesis of DNA
The definition of lysogeny is
  • the disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
  • presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.
  • phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.
  • cause tumors to develop.
________ is a Greek word meaning "yellow," the color of the residue that remains after the substance is heated with nitric acid until dry.
  • Xanthine
  • caffeine.
  • Caffeine
  • Theophylline
Drinking 5 or more cups of coffee per day:
  • doubles the risk of a heart attack.
  • blocking adenosine receptors.
  • Brazil, Colombia, and Vietnam.
  • food of the gods.
The maximum CNS effect of caffeine is reached about ________ after drinking coffee.
  • Turkey.
  • headache.
  • caffeine.
  • 2 hours
The legend of the discovery of coffee relates to:
  • whether the person is a regular user.
  • Kaldi and his dancing goats.
  • The Women's Petition Against Coffee.
  • is likely to lead to increased arousal, but the drinker is still impaired.
The largest exporters of coffee to the United States are:
  • 40-60 mg (about half the amount in coffee)
  • Brazil, Colombia, and Vietnam.
  • food of the gods.
  • migraine headaches.
According to current FDA rules on "cola" drinks, ________.
  • they cannot contain more than 6 mg caffeine per ounce
  • food of the gods.
  • 40-60 mg (about half the amount in coffee)
  • the syrup contained caffeine.
The unique xanthine in chocolate is:
  • theobromine.
  • Theobromine
  • caffeine.
  • Theophylline
In the 18th century, English coffeehouses were referred to as:
  • penny universities.
  • Excedrin Migraine
  • Camellia sinensis.
  • migraine headaches.
The most consistent withdrawal symptom after chronic caffeine use is:
  • caffeine.
  • Turkey.
  • 2 hours
  • headache.
In 1909, the FDA seized some Coca-Cola syrup and filed charges against the company partly because:
  • the syrup contained caffeine.
  • Theobromine
  • The pharmacological effects on the central nervous system (CNS) and the skeletal muscles are probably the basis for the wide use of caffeine-containing beverages.
  • Excedrin Migraine
Which of the following statements is true of the physiological effects of caffeine?
  • the syrup contained caffeine.
  • The pharmacological effects on the central nervous system (CNS) and the skeletal muscles are probably the basis for the wide use of caffeine-containing beverages.
  • Theobromine
  • Excedrin Migraine
Caffeine works in the brain by:
  • migraine headaches.
  • doubles the risk of a heart attack.
  • Brazil, Colombia, and Vietnam.
  • blocking adenosine receptors.
________ is prescribed to asthma sufferers because it relaxes bronchial passages.
  • Xanthine
  • Theobromine
  • theobromine.
  • Theophylline
The result of grinding the kernels of a cacao plant is a thick liquid called _______.
  • Excedrin Migraine
  • Camellia sinensis.
  • food of the gods.
  • chocolate liquor
Green, black, and oolong tea are all prepared from leaves of:
  • penny universities.
  • Camellia sinensis.
  • migraine headaches.
  • Excedrin Migraine
Which of the following has the highest amount of caffeine per serving?
  • Theobromine
  • Camellia sinensis.
  • Excedrin Migraine
  • food of the gods.
The main active ingredient in Red Bull and other energy drinks is:
  • headache.
  • Caffeine
  • caffeine.
  • Turkey.
Most regular brewed teas have about how much caffeine per cup?
  • Brazil, Colombia, and Vietnam.
  • penny universities.
  • they cannot contain more than 6 mg caffeine per ounce
  • 40-60 mg (about half the amount in coffee)
What is transferring a​ firm's activities that have traditionally been internal to external​ suppliers?
  • outsourcing
  • petroleum
  • alternate sourcing
  • vertical integration
The advantage of having few suppliers is to
  • Speed is often very important.
  • offer lower prices in the short term.
  • Increase the duplication of tasks.
  • form a long-term relationship
What is developing the ability to produce goods or services previously purchased or actually buying a supplier or a​ distributor?
  • outsourcing
  • raw material inventory
  • vertical integration
  • a probabilistic model.
The advantage of having many potential suppliers is their willingness to
  • offer lower prices in the short term.
  • gather and communicate market research data
  • Use buffer stocks to ensure speedy supply.
  • form a long-term relationship
A supply chain ends with
  • alternate sourcing
  • supplier evaluation
  • market-based price model
  • a satisfied customer.
The​ do-it-yourselfer plucked a gallon can of base paint from the shelf of the local hardware store and handed it to​ Keith, the cheerful clerk at the paint counter. Their eyes met briefly and the​ do-it-yourselfer silently handed over sample​ 150C-1, Musical​ Mist, to the clerk. It was impractical to keep several gallons of every possible color on the shelves at the hardware​ store, so the paint manufacturer had created clever workaround. The workaround was a​ computer-based system that added predetermined quantities of pigments to a gallon can of base paint depending on the desired​ shade, in this​ case, Musical Mist. The hardware store now needed to stock only the base​ paint, this​ machine, and a small supply of paint pigments in order to create the thousands of colors in its catalog.This scenario is a prime example of
  • outsourcing
  • keiretsu networks
  • postponement.
  • petroleum
A response strategy requires suppliers be selected based primarily on
  • offer lower prices in the short term.
  • Increase the duplication of tasks.
  • ​capacity, speed, and flexibility.
  • Prices are based upon supplier costs.
Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits accrued from a centralized purchasing​ function?
  • Speed is often very important.
  • Increase the duplication of tasks.
  • gather and communicate market research data
  • Use buffer stocks to ensure speedy supply.
Which of the following statements is true regarding​ cross-sourcing?
  • purchasing contracts that address price fluctuations
  • An increased sales effort may help a firm reach its profit goals more easily than would effective cost cutting.
  • Cross-sourcing uses one supplier for a component and a second supplier for another​ component, where each supplier acts as a backup for the other.
  • careful​ selection, monitoring and effective contracts with penalties
A lawnmower assembly plant uses a variety of​ nuts, bolts,​ screws, and other fasteners in its operation. Its supplier delivers these items directly to the point of use on the assembly line and ensures that there are always sufficient quantities of fasteners to maintain the production schedule.This is an example of
  • vendor-managed inventory.
  • closed-loop supply chain
  • market-based price model
  • vertical integration
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding channel​ assembly?
  • blanket order
  • The bullwhip effect occurs as order are relayed from​ retails, to​ distributors, to​ wholesalers, to​ manufacturers, with fluctuations decreasing at each step in the sequence.
  • Institute for Supply Management
  • Channel assembly sends individual​ components, modules, and finished​ products, to the distributor.
What is a​ long-term purchase commitment to a supplier for items that are to be delivered against​ short-term releases to​ ship?
  • vertical integration
  • blanket order
  • outsourcing
  • The bullwhip effect occurs as order are relayed from​ retails, to​ distributors, to​ wholesalers, to​ manufacturers, with fluctuations decreasing at each step in the sequence.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the bullwhip​ effect?
  • The bullwhip effect occurs as order are relayed from​ retails, to​ distributors, to​ wholesalers, to​ manufacturers, with fluctuations decreasing at each step in the sequence.
  • Cross-sourcing uses one supplier for a component and a second supplier for another​ component, where each supplier acts as a backup for the other.
  • Channel assembly sends individual​ components, modules, and finished​ products, to the distributor.
  • Use buffer stocks to ensure speedy supply.
Which of the following could reduce distribution​ risk?
  • Use buffer stocks to ensure speedy supply.
  • careful​ selection, monitoring and effective contracts with penalties
  • purchasing contracts that address price fluctuations
  • An increased sales effort may help a firm reach its profit goals more easily than would effective cost cutting.
Prior to embarking on supply chain​ design, operations managers must first consider
  • Use buffer stocks to ensure speedy supply.
  • market-based price model
  • "make-or-buy" and outsourcing decisions.
  • Increase the duplication of tasks.
Which of the following statements is NOT one of the response strategy​ decisions?
  • Speed is often very important.
  • gather and communicate market research data
  • Use buffer stocks to ensure speedy supply.
  • Increase the duplication of tasks.
Which of the following statements is NOT one of the differentiation strategy​ decisions?
  • Increase the duplication of tasks.
  • Speed is often very important.
  • Use buffer stocks to ensure speedy supply.
  • purchasing contracts that address price fluctuations
What is a supply chain designed to optimize both forward and reverse​ flows?
  • vertical integration
  • vendor-managed inventory.
  • closed-loop supply chain
  • market-based price model
With regard to the​ cost-based price model negotiation​ strategy, which of the following is​ true?
  • Prices are based upon supplier costs.
  • gather and communicate market research data
  • Increase the duplication of tasks.
  • Speed is often very important.
Which of the following is the first stage of supplier​ selection?
  • petroleum
  • keiretsu networks
  • supplier evaluation
  • alternate sourcing
Which negotiation strategy bases price on a​ published, auction, or index​ price?
  • market-based price model
  • keiretsu networks
  • gather and communicate market research data
  • alternate sourcing
Which of the following strategies is part​ collaboration, part purchasing from few​ suppliers, and part vertical​ integration?
  • Speed is often very important.
  • keiretsu networks
  • alternate sourcing
  • Increase the duplication of tasks.
Which of the following industries has the highest supply chain cost as a percentage of​ sales?
  • keiretsu networks
  • petroleum
  • alternate sourcing
  • Speed is often very important.
which of the following is not a key organizational component of interest groups?
  • how many members they represent
  • industrial deregulation
  • newsletter and website
  • the Sierra Club
Which of the following groups was not established through the New Politics movement?
  • nominating a candidate to run for political office
  • National Association of Manufacturers
  • the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People
  • having a higher income and education
Which of the following groups would be considered part of the New Politics movement?
  • the Sierra Club
  • how many members they represent
  • the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People
  • newsletter and website
What is the primary function of a political action committee (PAC)?
  • newsletter and website
  • Lobbyists try to exert pressure directly on governmental officials themselves
  • to produce and carry out an institutional advertising campaign to build better networks between interest groups and political partiesto raise and distribute money to election campaigns
  • is due to the decline in the United States' multiparty system.is a response to an increase in the size and activity of government. causes a subsequent expansion in government.
A ______ is the best example of an informational benefit provided by many interest groups.
  • collective good
  • newsletter
  • issue network
  • Free rider
When membership in an organization allows for a reduction in the price of museum tickets, it is called a
  • meterial benefit
  • a political party
  • a labor group
  • private interests are hiding behind the ideals of public interest
Alexis de Tocqueville argued that the proliferation of groups gromoted
  • with higher levels of income and education
  • dramatically increased
  • governmental responsiveness
  • public-sector interest group.
When interest groups generate phony letters and phone calls in order to resemble a grassroots movement, this technique is called
  • the Sierra Club
  • information
  • Astroturf lobbying
  • mobilizing public opinion.
Many interest groups are initially organized because
  • encourage administrative agencies to negotiate with important interest groups
  • saw it as a way to limit the influence of interest groups in the legislative process
  • a political entrepreneur with a strong commitment to a particular set of goals believes a group will promote his or her goals and enhance his or her political influence.
  • representing the interests of large numbers of people and encouraging political participation
What are political parties more capable of doing than interest groups?
  • faction
  • industrial deregulation
  • organizing people on a mass scale
  • Competition among interests will produce balance, with all interests regulating each other.
What contemporary political scientists call an interest group, James Madison called a(n)
  • staff organization
  • having a higher income and education
  • stakeholders
  • faction
A loose, informal relationship of public officials, interest groups, and activists who are all concerned with the same policies is called a(n)
  • stakeholders
  • Jack Abramoff
  • issue network
  • information
What is the primary variable for predicting the likelihood of joining an interest group?
  • having a higher income and education
  • nominating a candidate to run for political office
  • National Association of Manufacturers
  • with higher levels of income and education
A PAC can contribute _______ to any candidate for federal office, provided it contributes to at least five different federal candidates each year.
  • Jack Abramoff
  • 5,000
  • Websteru
  • 5,500
Public interest groups differ from other types of interest groups in that
  • It is necessary to limit the extent of the free-rider problem
  • the benefits of a group's actions are broadly available and cannot be denied to nonmembers
  • there are no organizations that can present their identities and demands.
  • they claim to serve the common good, not just their own particular interests.
In the world of lobbyists, to be "Microsofted" has come to mean a company has
  • stakeholders
  • Competition among interests will produce balance, with all interests regulating each other.
  • to produce and carry out an institutional advertising campaign to build better networks between interest groups and political partiesto raise and distribute money to election campaigns
  • become vulnerable to adverse legislation and investigation as a result of failing to lobby the federal government.
Which of the following issues is not part of the agenda of the New Politics movement?
  • the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People
  • industrial deregulation
  • nominating a candidate to run for political office
  • dramatically increased
The New Politics movement gave rise to what type of interest group?
  • New Politics forces made significant use of the courts during the 1970s and 1980s and judicial decisions were instrumental in advancing their goals
  • Public interest
  • When an interest group mobilizes its members and their families throughout the country to write their representatives in support of the group's position
  • Members of Congress are forbidden from ever working for an interest group once they leave office.
Which of the following has Congress not done in recent years in order to limit the influence of interest groups?
  • outlawed all contact between lobbyists and members of Congress during legislative sessions
  • private interests are hiding behind the ideals of public interest
  • a labor group
  • meterial benefit
Why is the Administrative Procedure Act of 1946 important to lobbyist?
  • interest group makes a contribution to a not-for-profit group which, in turn, provides laundered campaign funds to politicians.
  • representing the interests of large numbers of people and encouraging political participation
  • a legislative committee, an interest group, and an executive agency
  • It requires agencies to create opportunities for public comments before implementing new rules and regulations.
The best description of the ideal pluralism is that
  • is due to the decline in the United States' multiparty system.is a response to an increase in the size and activity of government. causes a subsequent expansion in government.
  • filing amici curiae briefs, financing lawsuits, and bringing a suit on behalf of the group
  • interests should be free to compete with each other for governmental influence
  • It is necessary to limit the extent of the free-rider problem
which of the following groups has had the greatest success with a strategy of litigation?
  • the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People
  • Both foreign nations and foreign business interests lobby strongly for economic benefits, military aid, and other issues
  • National Association of Manufacturers
  • Competition among interests will produce balance, with all interests regulating each other.
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