Chapter 13 Quiz - MCQGeeks.com

When members of a group are friendly and tight-knit but unable to disagree enough to properly appraise alternatives, they are said to be experiencing A. paradigm paralysis.B. groupthink.C. social loafing.D. the dialectic method.E. devil's advocacy.

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A
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B

During the forming stage, the leader should A. establish permanent control.B. allow people to socialize.C. empower team members.D. encourage disagreement.E. work through team conflicts.

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B
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D
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T
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F

Groups that make it through storming generally do so because A. they develop groupthink.B. someone wins the political battle and dominates the group.C. someone besides the leader challenges the group to resolve power struggles.D. the work gets done.E. the focus generally is on social loafing.

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D
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C
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E

Luis, Kennedy, and Jennifer met once a week for several months in the fall to redesign department work spaces, to be implemented when the organization moved to a new building in January. This is an example of a A. top management team.B. problem-solving team.C. cross-functional team.D. virtual team.E. continuous improvement team.

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C
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A
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E
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B

Which of the following is a characteristic of a continuous improvement team? A. A built-in part of any effective organizational group.B. A type of advice team.C. Requires assigned membership.D. Emerged from self-managed team concept.E. Encourages high empowerment.

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B
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E
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C

A team composed of people from different departments who are pursuing a common objective is called a A. quality circle.B. problem-solving team.C. cross-functional team.D. virtual team.E. work force.

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B

______ is a "we feeling" that binds group members together. A. MaintenanceB. GroupthinkC. NormingD. Social loafingE. Group cohesiveness

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E
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A
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B

The tendency of a group or team to stick together is known as cooperation

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D
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B
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A

Which of the following is a disadvantage of smaller groups? A. Unfair work distributionB. Autocratic leadershipC. Lower moraleD. Tendency to form cliquesE. Tendency to take unreasonable risk

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B
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E
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A
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d

Which of the following is characteristic of workgroups with too little conflict? A. DissatisfactionB. IndecisionC. Political infightingD. Lack of teamworkE. Turnover

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B
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C
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A
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D

A team that consists of members who interact by computer network to collaborate on projects is called a(n) A. remote team.B. e-team.C. self-managed team.D. informal team.E. virtual team.

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a
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E
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C
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D

Problem-solving teams consist of small groups of volunteers or workers and supervisors who meet intermittently to discuss workplace- and quality-related problems

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A

In all but the worst weather, Laura and four of her coworkers met each day at 12:15 to walk the wilderness trail behind their office building. This is an example of a(n) A. continuous improvement team.B. informal group.C. self-managed team.D. virtual team.E. formal group.

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D
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B
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E
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A

Groupthink is a cohesive group's blind unwillingness to consider alternatives

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a

Over 20 years ago, Peter Drucker predicted that the future organization would be organized around teamwork, but that has yet to occur

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c
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F

One of the primary reasons norms are enforced is to leverage the group's power with management

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D
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B
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T

The CEO of __________ said "you lead today by building teams and placing others first."A) Bank of AmericaB) SonyC) Wal-MartD) Proctor and GambleE) General Electric

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B
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e

Two or more freely interacting individuals who share collective norms, share collective goals, and have a common identity are called a A. cluster.B. self-managing work team.C. collaborative unit.D. quality circle.E. group.

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B
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D

Hannah is on a team with Carson, and they are often in conflict. Hannah likes to begin her work with careful planning and she gets started immediately. Carson, on the other hand, likes trying out several ideas, and tends to be working frantically at the last minute. Their team conflict most likely stems from A. time pressure.B. a personality clash.C. communication failure.D. ambiguous jurisdictions.E. inconsistent goals.

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E
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A
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B
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D

Which of the following is true of informal groups? A) Informal groups support the plans of formal groups. B) Informal groups have formal leaders. C) Informal groups are primarily made to solve an organization problem. D) A temporary task force is an example of an informal group.E) Members of an informal group are assigned to it by the skills they possess.

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B
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D
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a
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c

Someone at a team meeting who says, "Let's hear from those who oppose this plan" is performing a ______ role. A. maintenanceB. socialC. coordinatorD. reorientationE. task

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E
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D

When job boundaries are ambiguous, employees are less possessive, and conflict is likely to be minimized

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E
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B
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F

Which of the following is a manifestation of excessive conflict in the workplace? A. ApathyB. Lack of creativityC. Missed deadlinesD. ViolenceE. Indecision

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F
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c
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D
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B

Devil's advocacy is a method used to induce programmed conflict

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B
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A

Which of the following is a way managers can enhance team cohesiveness? A. Isolating the group from the actions of competitors or other threats.B. Providing team members precise instructions for their tasks.C. Creating a relatively large team.D. Assigning members randomly to teams.E. Emphasizing members' common characteristics.

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c
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E
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B

Malia told her team that she is moving forward with a change to the bonus structure, despite vocal objections from several team members. Malia is using the ______ conflict-handling style. A. avoidingB. collaboratingC. compromisingD. forcingE. accommodating

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D

Many groups stall in the performing stage of group development

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T

______ is designed to elicit different opinions without inciting people's personal feelings. A. GroupthinkB. Programmed conflictC. Social loafingD. StormingE. Dysfunctional conflict

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a
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B

________ conflict is defined as interpersonal opposition based on personal dislike, disagreement, or differing styles. A. PersonalityB. CompetitiveC. DysfunctionalD. CommunicationE. Programmed

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B

Which of the following is considered one of the most essential considerations in building a group into an effective team? A. TrustB. Promoting groupthinkC. Organizational structureD. Market stabilityE. Size

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B
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A
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c
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E

Organizations with too much conflict tend to be plagued by apathy and missed deadlines

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T

In which of the following conditions should constructive conflict be stimulated? A. The group seems to be apathetic.B. Managers want to achieve work objectives.C. The group is adapting to change.D. Managers are in charge of self-managed teams.E. There is a lot of internal competition.

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C
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d
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B
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A

The dialectic method is the process of assigning someone to play the role of critic to voice possible objections to a proposal

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a
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T

In the performing stage of group development, members A. prepare for disbandment.B. develop close relationships.C. concentrate on solving problems.D. test the leader's policies.E. hold back to see what will happen.

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B
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D

Conflict is the dramatic and often violent clash of opposing forces that lacks a simple resolution that would be satisfactory to all parties

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D

Toyota's automobile recall problems may have been rooted in the difference between Japanese and American attitudes about A. ambiguity.B. conflict.C. advocacy.D. division of labor.E. performance.

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B
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C
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D

During the ______ stage of team development, close relationships develop and unity and harmony emerge. A. stormingB. normingC. performingD. formingE. adjourning

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a
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B

______ is the conflict-handling style that strives to devise solutions that benefit both parties. A. AvoidingB. CollaboratingC. CompromisingD. ForcingE. Accommodating

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B
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C
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D

People tend to exert less effort when working in groups than when working alone, a tendency known as social loafing

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B
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a
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T

The question the group is asking during the forming stage of group development is A. "Why are we here?"B. "What's next?"C. "Can we do the job properly?"D. "Why are we fighting about who does what?"E. "Can we agree on roles and work as a team?"

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D
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F
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A
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b

Members of smaller teams tend to be more highly committed and satisfied

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B
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A

Who are typical members of continuous improvement teams? A. Workers and supervisorsB. Supervisors and managersC. Managers and agents representing competitorsD. Managers and outside suppliersE. Customers and suppliers

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D
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B
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A

Which of the following is true of informal groups? A. Informal groups can advance the plans of formal groups.B. A temporary committee is an example of an informal group.C. Members of an informal group are assigned to it by the skills they possess.D. Informal groups have appointed leaders.E. Informal groups are primarily created to solve an organizational problem.

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A
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D

Members of a team develop their ______ based on the expectations of the team, of the organization, and of themselves. A. rolesB. normsC. groupthinkD. job descriptionsE. social fit

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c

Which of the following is a characteristic of a self-managed team? A) advice team B) voluntary membership C) team bonuses are used D) no empowerment

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c

During the norming stage of group development, the leader should A) help the team identify group goals and values. B) encourage members to suggest ideas. C) help people get to know each other. D) empower the members. E) give a party.

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B

A team is a small group of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common purpose and performance goals

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D

Individuals are said to be cooperating when A. they have reciprocal faith in others' intentions and behaviors.B. they have a sense of togetherness and unity.C. their efforts are systematically integrated to achieve a collective objective.D. their motivation comes from a desire to please a supervisor or the seeking of a tangible reward.E. they have ceased to be competitive with one another and prefer harmony.

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d

The process of getting oriented and getting acquainted with the group is known as the forming stage of team development

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B
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F

Which of the following is not one of the stages of group and team development? A. NormingB. StormingC. ReformingD. AdjourningE. Performing

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C

Managers can stimulate cohesiveness in teams by encouraging people to have face-to-face exchanges at work

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A

Avoiding it is never an appropriate response to conflict

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a
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D

The stage during which a group sets guidelines about issues like attendance and punctuality is the ______ stage. A. normingB. stormingC. formingD. adjourningE. performing

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D
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B
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F

The conflict-handling style in which a person allows the desires of another to prevail is known as A. forcing.B. accommodating.C. avoiding.D. collaborating.E. compromising.

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E
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B
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D
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T

Tension was thick in the room as the management team discussed changes to promotion requirements. But then Chris made a joke about Jake's white-knuckled grip on his pen, and the laughter seemed to improve the mood. Chris was acting in a ______ role. A. relationalB. taskC. maintenanceD. socialE. production

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d
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C
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A

Pat and Dale are both managers at ABC Company. Pat wants to decorate the office in light blue, and Dale wants to decorate in tan. This issue is important to Pat, but not to Dale. Dale should adopt a(n) ________ conflict-handling style. A) avoiding B) collaborating C) compromising D) forcing E) accommodating

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B
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A
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e
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D

A formal group typically has no officially appointed leader, although a leader may emerge from members of the group

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D

At Bremond Stafford Architects, a group of designers are developing the first drawings for a proposed multiuse development section of a large city that is being revitalized. What type of work team is this group? A. Project teamB. Production teamC. Product teamD. Action teamE. Advice team

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F

Trust is based on _______, which can be enhanced by showing professionalism, technical ability, and good business sense. A. cooperationB. cohesivenessC. unityD. honestyE. credibility

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B
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D

A work team that is responsible for performing day-to-day operations is called a(n) A) production team. B) project team. C) product team. D) action team. E) advice team.

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B
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a

A work team may be self-managed, cross-functional, virtual, or even all of these at the same time

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B

Certain kinds of conflict can be beneficial for organizations

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T

A maintenance crew is an example of an action team

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C

Larger teams are more likely than small ones to have formal and autocratic leadership

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B

Among the benefits of teamwork is the reduction of destructive internal competition

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c

Jane organized several teachers to discuss the school's interior painting scheduled for summer. They looked at several brands, and heard a presentation by a designer who then helped them choose a color palette to recommend to school administrators. In this instance, the teachers make up a(n) A. self-managed team.B. virtual team.C. cross-functional team.D. informal group.E. formal group.

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A

Who are typical members of quality circles? A) workers and supervisors B) supervisors and managers C) managers onlyD) outside vendors onlyE) customers and vendors

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c

Generally speaking, the optimal team size is considered to be 12 to 15 members

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F

While quality is usually improved by using teamwork in an organization, productivity typically suffers because teamwork is time consuming

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F

When resources are scarce, conflict is more likely

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B
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D

In the workplace, informal groups can undercut the plans of formal groups

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a

Performance in the workplace is maximized with a moderate level of conflict

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B

Twenty-five new employees from across the Kendall Automotive Technologies organization are attending an orientation, receiving information about company policies, and filling out various forms. These employees comprise a team

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C

Peer pressure, which leads group members to question the loyalty of other members who express dissent, is a symptom of A. social loafing.B. norming.C. devil's advocacy.D. groupthink.E. storming.

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F

Jerald led a team that has just finished up a very challenging research project that will assist management in developing long-range plans. Despite the stress of the past few months, most participants seem sad it's over. Now Jerald should A. have an awards ceremony.B. emphasize unity.C. get the group disbanded quickly to free people up for new things.D. provide opportunities for people to get to know each other better now.E. ensure those members can work on similar tasks going forward.

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B
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A

Speed of resolution is the primary benefit of using the collaborating conflict-handling style

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B
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T

Which of the following is an advantage of smaller groups? A. Fewer distractionsB. More formalized team leadershipC. More creativity and innovationD. More division of laborE. Better interaction and coordination

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C

Formal communication is the essence of a team, and what differentiates it from a group

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e

The principal by-product of the norming stage of team development is A. adjournment.B. uncertainty.C. group cohesiveness.D. conflict.E. empowerment.

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e

Which of the following is an advantage of larger groups? A. Higher moraleB. More effective interactionC. Greater boldnessD. Able to take advantage of division of laborE. Less social loafing

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B
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E

The disadvantage of the ______ conflict-handling style is that it is very time consuming. A. avoidingB. collaboratingC. compromisingD. forcingE. accommodating

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B

Which of the following is a disadvantage of larger groups? A) lower morale B) more division of labor C) more interaction D) fewer resources E) fewer cliques

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a
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B
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d

Since hard feelings about group leadership and assignments had passed, Elena's group recently seemed to be relating much better. At the meeting tomorrow she should take advantage of this moment by A. helping the team identify group goals and values.B. encouraging members to voice disagreements.C. helping people get to know each other.D. empowering the members.E. throwing a thank-you party.

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E

About 25% of Fortune 1000 companies use some form of self-managed work teams

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B

Which of the following is an important aspect when creating a self-managed team? A. Lessen the authority and autonomy that is granted.B. Require participation to be outside of normal working hours.C. Use some form of team compensation.D. Allow workers to simply do their own thing.E. Require voluntary only membership.

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A

Which of the following is not a benefit of teamwork in an organization? A. Increased speedB. Decreased stressC. Reduced costsD. Improved workplace cohesivenessE. Reduced destructive internal competition

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B
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C
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E

Mutual trust and commitment are developed within a team because members are mutually accountable to a supervisor

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B
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D
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F

Job modeling is a socially determined set of rules for how an individual should behave in an organization

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B

In the storming stage of group development, the leader should encourage members to work through their conflicts about tasks and goals

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A

Another name for functional conflict is productive conflict

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A

Self-managed teams are groups of workers who have been given ______ for their task domains. A. individual incentivesB. administrative oversightC. reduced responsibilityD. complete freedomE. no technology

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c
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B

When parties to a conflict have deeply rooted, opposing value systems, the most appropriate method to handle the conflict is collaboration

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A

Which of the following is the best way to manage virtual teams? A. Focus on what is accomplished, not hours or locations.B. When beginning with a virtual team, set the final deadline and reprimand any virtual team members who don't make the deadline.C. Because you don't have face-to-face contact, relay instructions via phone.D. Require each team member to keep their own personal record of the work that's been done as a team.E. Utilize employees on a global team around the clock.

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B
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A
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c

Participating on virtual teams necessarily requires individuals to be available for electronic communication 24 hours a day.

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D
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B
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T

Norms point up the boundaries between acceptable and unacceptable behavior among group or team members

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E
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D
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T

Managers of virtual workers should arrange for them to meet regularly

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B
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F

Dave sat through the meeting feeling convinced his team was misinterpreting recent marketing research, but he didn't say anything. The team leader was a close friend. Plus, he didn't want to disrupt the team since he perceived himself to be the only one with reservations. Dave's team appears to be experiencing A. groupthink.B. storming.C. social loafing.D. norming.E. devil's advocacy.

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D
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C
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B

The group development stage in which individuals test the leader's policies and assumptions as they try to determine how they fit into the power structure is the ______ stage. A. stormingB. normingC. performingD. formingE. adjourning

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A
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B

A _______ is defined as a small group of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common purpose, performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves accountable. A. cross-functional teamB. groupC. teamD. panelE. formal group

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B
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A

Marielle points out during the meeting that the group has fallen a half hour behind schedule according to the agenda, and should get back to the important work at hand. She is performing a ______ role. A. relationalB. taskC. maintenanceD. socialE. production

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D
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B
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A
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C

Creating self-managed teams in the workplace has a very positive effect on job satisfaction and organizational commitment

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T
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E

Which of the following is most likely to be considered an action team? A. A group of scientists working on a new cancer drug.B. All workers on the night shift of a plastics manufacturing facility.C. An advisory council on teacher development for a school district.D. An airline cockpit crew.E. An information-technology improvement task force.

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c
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E
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D

Dysfunction conflict is sometimes called ______ conflict. A. negativeB. irregularC. destructiveD. aggressiveE. apathetic

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D
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B
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A

Which of the following is an advantage of larger groups? A) higher morale B) more autocratic leadership is acceptable C) can take advantage of division of labor D) greater boldnessE) less social loafing

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d
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A
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B
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c

Workplace performance is maximized when A. conflict is absent.B. conflict is at a very low level.C. conflict is at a moderate level.D. conflict is at a high level.E. conflict occurs only at nonmanagerial levels.

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C
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B
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E

When using a self-managed team, a manager should A. maintain detailed monitoring of its performance.B. create the team within whatever structure currently exists.C. offer lucrative individual bonuses.D. allow members to hire their own coworkers.E. provide elaborate retreats for team discussions.

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F
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B
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C

Which of the following is a disadvantage of larger groups? A. Less creativity and innovationB. Less commitmentC. More division of laborD. Fewer resourcesE. Fewer cliques

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B
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d
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a
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C

Jinhai's team was not making much progress on defining a new production process. Maria was being very uncooperative; she did not agree with the direction Jinhai was taking, so she hadn't helped with her part. This team is in what stage of group development? A. PerformingB. FormingC. AdjourningD. StormingE. Norming

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E
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D
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c
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B

Suppose some firms exit an industry characterized by monopolistic competition. We would expect the demand curve of a firm already in the industry to:Shift to the leftBecome less elasticShift to the rightRemain the same since entering firms serve other customers in the market

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B
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C
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A

MC Qu. 134 If a particular bank regularly announces cha...If a particular bank regularly announces changes in its interest rate schedules before its competitors, who then set rates very close to those announced by that bank, this could be described as:Explicit price collusionMarkup pricingPrice leadershipPredatory pricing

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B
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A
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D

Which of the following is a characteristic of monopolistic competition?A relatively small number of firmsAbsence of nonprice competitionStandardized productRelatively easy entry

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D

Monopolistic competitive firms are productively inefficient because production occurs where:Marginal cost is less than pricePrice is greater than marginal revenueMarginal cost is not at its lowestAverage total cost is not at its lowest

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B
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D

One difference between monopolistic competition and pure competition is that:There is some control over price in monopolistic competitionMonopolistic competition has significant barriers to entryFirms differentiate their products in pure competitionProducts may be homogeneous in monopolistic competition

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B
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D

Assume that in a monopolistically competitive industry, firms are earning economic profit. This situation will:Make the industry allocatively efficient as each firm seeks to maintain its profitsCause firms to standardize their product to limit the degree of competitionReduce the excess capacity in the industry as firms expand productionAttract other firms to enter the industry, causing the existing firms' profits to shrink

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C
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D
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B
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A

Monopolistic competition is characterized by firms:Producing at optimal productive efficiencyMaking economic profits in the long runProducing where price equals marginal costProducing differentiated products

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B
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D

A strategy that is better than any alternative strategy - regardless of what the other firm does - is called a:Positive-sum strategyBest strategyDominant strategyNash strategy

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D
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B
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0%
C

Collusion refers to a situation where rival firms decide to:Agree with each other to set prices and outputCheat on each otherCombine their operations and merge with each otherCompete aggressively against each other

0%
C
0%
B
0%
A
0%
D

The economic inefficiency in an oligopoly may be reduced by the following, except:Economic profits used to fund technological advanceIncreased competition from foreign producersAggressive advertising by rivalsLimit pricing due to potential entrants

0%
B
0%
D
0%
C
0%
A

http://ezto.mheducation.com/1325270529350269682.tp4?REQUEST=SHOWmedia&conId=13252705269169941&media=image028.pngRefer to the above graph of the representative firm in monopolistic competition. Point b indicates:A point that cannot be the long-run equilibrium pointA situation where the firm is earning economic profitsThe price-output combination that yields maximum profitsThe lowest possible cost of the firm's product

0%
C
0%
D
0%
B
0%
A

In which market model is there mutual interdependence?OligopolyMonopolistic competitionPure competitionPure monopoly

0%
B
0%
A
0%
D
0%
C

A prediction from the kinked demand curve model of oligopoly is that, for an individual firm, small changes in:Marginal revenue will lead to changes in price and outputMarginal cost will lead to changes in price and outputDemand will lead to changes in price or outputMarginal cost will not lead to changes in price or output

0%
C
0%
B
0%
A
0%
D

A monopolistically competitive industry is like a purely competitive industry in that:Firms in both industries face a horizontal demand curveNonprice competition is a feature in both industriesNeither industry has significant barriers to entryEach industry produces a standardized product

0%
C
0%
A
0%
D
0%
B

A potential negative effect of advertising for society is that it can:Be the major cause of price wars among firms in the industryReduce mutual interdependence and increase competitionBe self-canceling and contribute to economic inefficiencyLower barriers to entry and undermine profits in the industry

0%
B
0%
A
0%
C
0%
D

Game theory, which is used in studying oligopoly behavior, originated from the study of games such as the following, except:BridgeChessSolitairePoker

0%
B
0%
A
0%
C
0%
D

Which of the following is a measure of the degree of industry concentration?Employment Cost IndexS&P-500 IndexDow Jones Industrial IndexHerfindahl Index

0%
B
0%
C
0%
D
0%
A

Mutual interdependence means that each firm in an oligopoly:Depends on the other firms for its marketsFaces a perfectly inelastic demand for its productDepends on the other firms for its inputsConsiders the reactions of its rivals when it determines its pricing policy

0%
B
0%
D
0%
C
0%
A

Informal collusion to restrict output and increase prices is sometimes referred to as a:CartelMergerKinked-demand oligopolyTacit understanding

0%
B
0%
C
0%
D
0%
A

A high concentration ratio indicates that:Many firms produce most of the output in an industryThe industry is highly profitableFew firms produce most of the output in an industryThe industry is highly competitive

0%
B
0%
C
0%
D
0%
A

Homologous chromosomes contain the same gene loci but may have different alleles of a particular gene. Sister chromatids are identical copies of each other produced during DNA replication.One homologous chromosome comes from the father, and the other comes from the mother. Sister chromatids are identical copies of each other.

0%
For what purpose(s) might a karyotype be prepared?
0%
How are sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes different from each other?
0%
Mitosis results in the formation of how many cells; meiosis results in the formation of how many cells?
0%
What number and types of chromosomes are found in a human somatic cell?

sister chromatids separate during anaphase

0%
Chromosome has two chromatids, joined at the centromere. What process led to the formation of the two chromatids?
0%
Heritable variation is required for which of the following?
0%
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
0%
Meiosis 2 is similar to mitosis in that

the exchange of homologous portions of nonsister chromatidsThe result is new combinations of genetic material (genetic recombination).

0%
What is crossing over?
0%
Meiosis 2 is similar to mitosis in that
0%
What number and types of chromosomes are found in a human somatic cell?
0%
Asexual reproduction...

a sperm cell.

0%
Which of the following occurs during meiosis but not during mitosis?
0%
Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during
0%
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
0%
Identify all possible products of meiosis in plant and animal life cycles.

produces offspring genetically identical to the parentOnly one individual makes a genetic contribution to the offspring.

0%
Which of the following occurs during meiosis but not during mitosis?
0%
What is crossing over?
0%
What number and types of chromosomes are found in a human somatic cell?
0%
Asexual reproduction...

Gametes (sperm and eggs) and sporesIn most animal life cycles, the products of meiosis are gametes. However, in plants, the products of meiosis are spores.

0%
Identify all possible products of meiosis in plant and animal life cycles.
0%
Which of the following occurs during meiosis but not during mitosis?
0%
What number and types of chromosomes are found in a human somatic cell?
0%
Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during

2x

0%
In alternation of generations, what is the diploid stage of a plant that follows fertilization called?
0%
If we continued to follow the cell lineage from previous question, then the DNA content of a single cell at metaphase of meiosis 2 would be
0%
The shuffling of chromosomes that occurs during both fertilization and _________ can lead to genetic variation.
0%
If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis 1 would be

2 diploid cells ... 4 haploid cellsIn mitosis a cell that has doubled its genetic material divides to produce 2 diploid daughter cells. In meiosis a cell that has doubled its genetic material undergoes two rounds of division, producing 4 haploid cells.

0%
In alternation of generations, what is the diploid stage of a plant that follows fertilization called?
0%
Mitosis results in the formation of how many cells; meiosis results in the formation of how many cells?
0%
How are sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes different from each other?
0%
Chromosome has two chromatids, joined at the centromere. What process led to the formation of the two chromatids?

the first three answers are correctKaryotypes can show if all the chromosomes are present, and whether an individual is male (XY) or female (XX). In addition, by staining the chromosomes and examining the resulting banding patterns, it is possible to detect defects such as deletions, translocations, and inversions.

0%
How are sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes different from each other?
0%
What number and types of chromosomes are found in a human somatic cell?
0%
For what purpose(s) might a karyotype be prepared?
0%
Heritable variation is required for which of the following?

meiosis 1

0%
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
0%
How are sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes different from each other?
0%
Which of the following occurs during meiosis but not during mitosis?
0%
Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during

synapsis occursThe pairing of homologous chromosomes that only occurs during prophase 1 of meiosis is called synapsis.

0%
The shuffling of chromosomes that occurs during both fertilization and _________ can lead to genetic variation.
0%
What number and types of chromosomes are found in a human somatic cell?
0%
Identify all possible products of meiosis in plant and animal life cycles.
0%
Which of the following occurs during meiosis but not during mitosis?

x

0%
If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis 1 would be
0%
In alternation of generations, what is the diploid stage of a plant that follows fertilization called?
0%
If we continued to follow the cell lineage from previous question, then the DNA content of a single cell at metaphase of meiosis 2 would be
0%
The shuffling of chromosomes that occurs during both fertilization and _________ can lead to genetic variation.

evolutionVariation is the raw material of evolution.

0%
Chromosome has two chromatids, joined at the centromere. What process led to the formation of the two chromatids?
0%
Two sister chromatids are joined at the centromere prior to meiosis. Which statement is correct?
0%
What number and types of chromosomes are found in a human somatic cell?
0%
Heritable variation is required for which of the following?

The State of the Union address is

0%
Limit the power of the president to commit American troops to military action without authorization from Congress
0%
Congress
0%
Mandated by the constitution
0%
Kitchen Cabinet

The main political value of the vice president is to

0%
Bring the president votes in the election from a group or religion that would not otherwise be a likely source of support
0%
Mandated by the constitution
0%
Congress
0%
Limit the power of the president to commit American troops to military action without authorization from Congress

The Council of Economic Advisers

0%
An expressed power
0%
Do not have to be approved by the Senate
0%
Analyzes the economy and economic trends in order to help the president anticipate economic events.
0%
Hilary Clinton

During the nineteenth century, ________ was America's dominant institution of government.

0%
Congress
0%
Mandated by the constitution
0%
Kitchen Cabinet
0%
Bring the president votes in the election from a group or religion that would not otherwise be a likely source of support

An informal group of advisers to the president is often called the ______.

0%
Limit the power of the president to commit American troops to military action without authorization from Congress
0%
Congress
0%
Mandated by the constitution
0%
Kitchen Cabinet

At what point in a vulnerability assessment would an attack tree be utilized?

0%
Threat modeling
0%
Accounts payable
0%
Confidential
0%
Threat evaluation

Is a tester is given the IP address, network diagrams, and source code of customer applications, the tester is using which technique?

0%
Active scanner
0%
White box
0%
Fail-open
0%
Threat modeling

Which of the following is a command line alternative to Nmap?

0%
Tcpdump
0%
Confidential
0%
Public
0%
Netcat

Which of the following command line tools tests a connection between two network devices?

0%
Confidential
0%
Public
0%
PHI
0%
Ping

Which of the following must be kept secure as mandated by HIPPA?

0%
PHI
0%
Tcpdump
0%
Ping
0%
Public

Which of the following sends "probes" to network devices and examines the responses to evaluate whether a specific device needs remediation?

0%
Vulnerability assessment
0%
Threat modeling
0%
Confidential
0%
Active scanner

Which of the following constructs scenarios of the type of threats that assets can face to learn who attackers are, why they attack, and what type of attacks may occur?

0%
Active scanner
0%
Confidential
0%
Threat modeling
0%
Vulnerability assessment

Which of the following is NOT a function of a vulnerability scanner?

0%
Alerts users when a new patch cannot be found
0%
Devices being infected with malware
0%
Tcpdump
0%
Today, individuals can achieve any level of privacy that is desired.

Which statement regarding a honeypot is NOT true?

0%
Vulnerability appraisal is always the easiest and quickest step
0%
It cannot be part of a honeynet
0%
Accounts payable
0%
Devices being infected with malware

Which of these should NOT be classified as an asset?

0%
Tcpdump
0%
Confidential
0%
Active scanner
0%
Accounts payable

Which of the following data sensitivity labels has the lowest level of data sensitivity?

0%
Confidential
0%
PHI
0%
Ping
0%
Public

Which of the following is a systematic and methodical evaluation of the exposure of assets to attackers, forces of nature, and any other entity that could cause potential harm?

0%
Vulnerability appraisal is always the easiest and quickest step
0%
Threat modeling
0%
Devices being infected with malware
0%
Vulnerability assessment

Which of these is NOT a state of a port that can be returned by a port scanner?

0%
Ping
0%
Busy
0%
Public
0%
By law, all encrypted data must contain a "backdoor" entry point.

Which statement regarding vulnerability appraisal is NOT true?

0%
Vulnerability assessment
0%
Alerts users when a new patch cannot be found
0%
Vulnerability appraisal is always the easiest and quickest step
0%
It cannot be part of a honeynet

Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with the use of private data?

0%
Alerts users when a new patch cannot be found
0%
Vulnerability assessment
0%
Devices being infected with malware
0%
Confidential

Developing the evaluation design is a step within the data collection process.

0%
True
0%
False

Propriety standards ensure that an evaluation is ethical.

0%
True
0%
False

The first step in the evaluation process is implementation.

0%
True
0%
False

An evaluation consultant should respect senior staff members' wishes for specific findings, and emphasize those findings in the report.

0%
True
0%
False

Evaluation planning should occur early, while program goals and objectives are being developed.

0%
True
0%
False

Data reflecting the initial status or interests of the participants are referred to as baseline data.

0%
True
0%
False

One barrier to effective program evaluation can be the time allotted for evaluation.

0%
True
0%
False

List four events that could hinder a successful evaluation.

0%
The planner failed to build evaluation into program planningChanges in adults come slowlySome changes do not lastAdequate procedures cost time and resources
0%
To demonstrate worth — an evaluation can help to determine if the program is moving in the right direction and whether or not it has had an impact on the target population and its health concernsTo compare different types of programs — different programs can be compared to determine which are the most effective in reaching program goals and objectivesTo meet requirements of the funding source — many times the funding source requires evaluation to determine whether or not goals have been met.
0%
Process — provides documentation during the program implementation to make adjustments for improvement if necessaryImpact — assesses the overall success of a program in producing favorable knowledge, skills, attitudes, etc. in the target populationOutcome — determines whether or not the program met the stated long-term goals and objectives
0%
Experience in the type of evaluation neededComfortable with quantitative data sources and analysisAble to work with a wide variety of stakeholders, including representatives of target populationsCan develop innovative approaches to evaluation while considering the realities affecting a program (e.g., a small budget)Incorporates evaluation into all program activitiesUnderstands both the potential benefits and risks of evaluationEducates program personnel in designing and conducting the evaluationWill give the staff full findings (i.e., will not gloss over or fail to report certain findings)

List three characteristics of a good evaluator.

0%
The planner failed to build evaluation into program planningChanges in adults come slowlySome changes do not lastAdequate procedures cost time and resources
0%
To demonstrate worth — an evaluation can help to determine if the program is moving in the right direction and whether or not it has had an impact on the target population and its health concernsTo compare different types of programs — different programs can be compared to determine which are the most effective in reaching program goals and objectivesTo meet requirements of the funding source — many times the funding source requires evaluation to determine whether or not goals have been met.
0%
Process — provides documentation during the program implementation to make adjustments for improvement if necessaryImpact — assesses the overall success of a program in producing favorable knowledge, skills, attitudes, etc. in the target populationOutcome — determines whether or not the program met the stated long-term goals and objectives
0%
Experience in the type of evaluation neededComfortable with quantitative data sources and analysisAble to work with a wide variety of stakeholders, including representatives of target populationsCan develop innovative approaches to evaluation while considering the realities affecting a program (e.g., a small budget)Incorporates evaluation into all program activitiesUnderstands both the potential benefits and risks of evaluationEducates program personnel in designing and conducting the evaluationWill give the staff full findings (i.e., will not gloss over or fail to report certain findings)

Describe the three advantages for using an internal evaluator and three advantages for using an external evaluator.

0%
Experience in the type of evaluation neededComfortable with quantitative data sources and analysisAble to work with a wide variety of stakeholders, including representatives of target populationsCan develop innovative approaches to evaluation while considering the realities affecting a program (e.g., a small budget)Incorporates evaluation into all program activitiesUnderstands both the potential benefits and risks of evaluationEducates program personnel in designing and conducting the evaluationWill give the staff full findings (i.e., will not gloss over or fail to report certain findings)
0%
impact evaluation.
0%
Internal — Advantages: More familiar with organization & program; Knows decision making style of organization; Present to remind people of results; Able to communicate results more frequently & clearlyExternal — Advantages: More objective; fresh outlook; Can ensure unbiased evaluation outcome; Brings global knowledge; Typical brings more breath & depth of technical expertise
0%
Process — provides documentation during the program implementation to make adjustments for improvement if necessaryImpact — assesses the overall success of a program in producing favorable knowledge, skills, attitudes, etc. in the target populationOutcome — determines whether or not the program met the stated long-term goals and objectives

A ________ is a horizontal form supported at only one end.

0%
Greek orders.
0%
cantilever
0%
a Gothic cathedral.
0%
an arch

The two basic families of structural systems in architecture are:

0%
weight and tensile strength.
0%
the shell and the skeleton-and-skin.
0%
tensile strength.
0%
both piers and flying buttresses.

The skeleton-and-skin structure the Crystal Palace was designed by ____________ in 1851.

0%
Joseph Paxton
0%
tensile strength.
0%
Greek orders.
0%
All of these.

The round opening in the dome of the Pantheon is called a(n)

0%
oculus
0%
cantilever
0%
an arch
0%
Greek orders.

Built almost 2000 years ago, the ________ is an enduring testament to the Roman use of the arch.

0%
R. Buckminster Fuller
0%
tensile strength.
0%
hypostyle hall.
0%
Pont du Gard at Nîmes

The International style emphasizes:

0%
All of these.
0%
Greek orders.
0%
tensile strength.
0%
Joseph Paxton

When a large hall is built using post-and-lintel construction methods, the resulting "virtual forest of columns" is called a:

0%
Frank Lloyd Wright.
0%
tensile strength.
0%
Joseph Paxton
0%
hypostyle hall.

Builders of Gothic cathedrals reinforced the walls of their architecture from the outside with:

0%
tensile strength.
0%
the shell and the skeleton-and-skin.
0%
weight and tensile strength.
0%
both piers and flying buttresses.

What St. Dionysus (Denis)?

0%
Giorgio Vasari
0%
Thierry of Chartres.
0%
It was a centre for fine book production.
0%
He brought Christianity to Gaul (France).

Indicate which of the following is not a characterisation of the changing social conditions in the Gothic period.

0%
Absence of a gallery.
0%
Salisbury Cathedral.
0%
Sexpartite rib vaults.
0%
Barbarian migrations.

Jean Pucelle illuminated which of the following?

0%
Late Gothic England.
0%
Sexpartite rib vaults.
0%
A visit to Italy.
0%
Belleville Breviary.

Introduced in French Gothic architecture____, are arm-like extensions that helped support the weight of the nave vaults on the outside of the building.

0%
Stained glass.
0%
Barbarian migrations.
0%
Flying buttresses.
0%
A visit to Italy.

The Reims portal sculpture of the Visitation has been described as two women conversing. This is in sharp contrast to earlier Gothic portal sculpture. How is the Visitation unique?

0%
The impression of capturing the likeness of specific individuals.
0%
The figures have greater freedom from the architectural lines.
0%
The court of Louis IX.
0%
The prominence of Mary in the portal program.

What is a keep?

0%
A secure tower in the castle that served as a place of last refuge.
0%
The side aisles are as tall as the nave.
0%
The impression of capturing the likeness of specific individuals.
0%
The figures have greater freedom from the architectural lines.

Saint-Chapelle, with its walls of stained glass and delicate ornamentation, is the most representative church of the____style.

0%
Burgundy.
0%
Rayonnant.
0%
Röttgen Pietà.
0%
Stained glass.

Who of the following coined the term "Gothic"?

0%
Queen of Heaven.
0%
Rose Window.
0%
Giorgio Vasari
0%
Thierry of Chartres.

The sculptural program of the west façade of Chartres Cathedral proclaims the power and majesty of Jesus Christ. Which of the following elements unites all three doorways of the west portal (Portal Royal) of Chartres Cathedral?

0%
The episodes from the life of Christ are carved on the capitals.
0%
Thierry of Chartres.
0%
He brought Christianity to Gaul (France).
0%
It was a centre for fine book production.

The focus of both the intellectual and religious life changed from monasteries in the countryside and pilgrimage churches to cathedrals in expanding cities. Which of the following would account for this change?

0%
It was time of great prosperity.
0%
The figures have greater freedom from the architectural lines.
0%
The prominence of Mary in the portal program.
0%
Byzantine Theotokos.

The Royal Portal of Chartres was carved in which style?

0%
Ste-Chapelle.
0%
Early Gothic.
0%
Stained glass.
0%
Late Gothic England.

In Jean Pucelle's Belleville Breviary, the artist has placed Saul seated on a throne with the receding coffers of a barrel vault above the head of David. He has created a stage set. Which of the following could account for this stage setting?

0%
Byzantine Theotokos.
0%
Stained glass.
0%
A visit to Italy.
0%
Belleville Breviary.

Which of the following is considered a masterpiece of the Rayonnant style?

0%
Röttgen Pietà.
0%
St.-Denis.
0%
Salisbury Cathedral.
0%
Ste-Chapelle.

Which of these churches embodies the essential characteristics of English Gothic architecture?

0%
Ste-Chapelle.
0%
Barbarian migrations.
0%
Röttgen Pietà.
0%
Salisbury Cathedral.

Jeanne d'Evreux, wife to Charles IV, donated a statue of the Virgin and Child to the Abbey of St.-Denis. What is the common name of this statue?

0%
Giorgio Vasari
0%
Queen of Heaven.
0%
S-shaped curve.
0%
Thierry of Chartres.

Which of the following figures provides the most direct contrast with the Naumburg figures?

0%
Salisbury Cathedral.
0%
Stained glass.
0%
Barbarian migrations.
0%
Röttgen Pietà.

Images of Old Testament kings and queens were frequently represented on French portals, such as Saint-Denis and Chartres because they____.

0%
The figures have greater freedom from the architectural lines.
0%
The prominence of Mary in the portal program.
0%
It was time of great prosperity.
0%
Emphasised Christ's royal ancestry and the French monarchy.

Fan vaulting was most common in which of the following?

0%
Early Gothic.
0%
Late Gothic England.
0%
The Virgin Mary (Notre-Dame).
0%
Belleville Breviary.

Perpendicular style was popular in which of the following countries?

0%
Burgundy.
0%
England.
0%
Early Gothic.
0%
St.-Denis.

How did the cult of the Virgin impact Gothic society?

0%
The court of Louis IX.
0%
Late Gothic England.
0%
They were not meant to just introduce color and iconography into the interior. In the cathedral interior stained glass windows did not conceal walls as frescoes or mosaics did, stained glass windows replace walls. Light passes through them and is transmitted by them, filtering and transforming interiors. Stained glass windows became one with the architecture and the liturgy.
0%
The cult of the Virgin shifted the focus from the severity of the Romanesque to a gentler and more compassionate theme. Worshippers believed the Virgin stood between the sinner and Christ interceding on behalf of the sinner. Great cathedrals were dedicated to her. The tone of society had changed.

The tympanum from the right portal of Chartres depicts the Virgin and Child that hearkens back to the Romanesque portrayals of this theme as the Throne of Wisdom. Which of the following is the source for this depiction?

0%
Sexpartite rib vaults.
0%
Stained glass.
0%
A visit to Italy.
0%
Byzantine Theotokos.

What pose developed by the "court" style had a strong influence on Late Gothic sculpture?

0%
Thierry of Chartres.
0%
S-shaped curve.
0%
Queen of Heaven.
0%
Giorgio Vasari

Abbot Suger is credited with creating which of the following churches>

0%
St.-Denis.
0%
Burgundy.
0%
Ste-Chapelle.
0%
England.

Which of the following became a standard feature of French Gothic facades?

0%
S-shaped curve.
0%
Thierry of Chartres.
0%
Rose Window.
0%
Giorgio Vasari

Lon Cathedral retains many of its Romanesque features. Which of the following is one such feature?

0%
The court of Louis IX.
0%
Absence of a gallery.
0%
Sexpartite rib vaults.
0%
Salisbury Cathedral.

What is a distinctive feature of a hall church?

0%
The prominence of Mary in the portal program.
0%
The side aisles are as tall as the nave.
0%
The court of Louis IX.
0%
Four part (quadripartite) ribbed vault.

The intense color and elegance of the Psalter of Saint Louis expresses the courtly style. Which of the following influences can also be associated with this manuscript?

0%
Stained glass.
0%
Flying buttresses.
0%
Byzantine Theotokos.
0%
Ste-Chapelle.